Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?

• A. Stethoscope
• B. Doppler transducer
• C. Fetoscope
• D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.

2. When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?

• A. family history of stroke
• B. ovaries removed before age 45
• C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
• D. unexplained vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When considering hormone replacement therapy for a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication. This is because it could be indicative of a serious underlying condition that needs investigation before initiating hormone therapy. A family history of stroke, by itself, is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy, unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 may actually increase the likelihood of needing hormone replacement therapy due to early menopause. Frequent hot flashes and night sweats, on the other hand, are symptoms that can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy, making them a potential indication rather than a contraindication.

3. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
• C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
• D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.

4. How should a nurse listen to the breath sounds of a client?

• A. Ask the client to lie prone.
• B. Ask the client to breathe in and out through the nose.
• C. Hold the bell of the stethoscope lightly against the chest.
• D. Listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To best listen to breath sounds, the nurse should have the client sit, leaning slightly forward, with arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little deeper than usual, but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should hold the flat diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope firmly against the client's chest wall. It is crucial to listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest to assess breath sounds accurately. Side-to-side comparison is essential in breath sound assessment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the correct procedure for listening to breath sounds.

5. When educating an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss, which of the following should not be included?

• A. knowledge of food and food products
• B. development of a positive mental attitude
• C. adequate exercise
• D. starting a fast weight-loss diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss, it is important to cover factors such as knowledge of food and food products, the development of a positive mental attitude, and the importance of adequate exercise. These aspects contribute to a holistic approach to weight management. However, recommending the client to start a fast weight-loss diet should not be included. Fast weight-loss diets can be harmful, leading to health risks, nutrient deficiencies, and unsustainable outcomes. It is crucial to advocate for gradual, sustainable weight loss strategies to ensure long-term success and overall well-being. Therefore, starting a fast weight-loss diet is the least appropriate option among the choices provided.

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