Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?

• A. Stethoscope
• B. Doppler transducer
• C. Fetoscope
• D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.

2. A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client's health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse, on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?

• A. Scoliosis
• B. Bone deformity
• C. Heberden nodules
• D. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Phalen test is specifically used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. In this test, the client is asked to hold their hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees, which can reproduce the numbness and burning sensation experienced by individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not related to the Phalen test. Bone deformity is a general term that does not specifically relate to the symptoms described. Heberden nodules are bony swellings that occur in osteoarthritis and are not assessed through the Phalen test.

3. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

4. At a health screening clinic, a nurse is educating a young woman about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse determines that the client demonstrates understanding when she makes which statement?

• A. BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period.
• B. BSE is performed after the menstrual period.
• C. Monthly BSE is a recommended method for early detection of breast cancer.
• D. Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.' BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period, not every other month or on the day menstruation begins. Performing BSE on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle when the breasts are smallest and least congested is recommended. While BSE is a useful tool for early detection, it is not the only method. Regular physical examinations and mammograms are also important. The correct technique for BSE includes inspecting the breasts in front of a mirror, palpating in the shower for easier detection, and conducting palpation while lying down for thorough examination.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which documented finding indicates an abnormality?

• A. The cervix is pink.
• B. The cervix is midline.
• C. The cervix is about 1 inch in diameter.
• D. Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.' Normally, the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1 inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual cycle, secretions may vary. However, they should always be odorless and nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are indicative of an infection, making this finding abnormal. Choices A, B, and C describe normal cervix characteristics, so they do not indicate an abnormality in this scenario.

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