a nurse is caring for a client with an elevated urine osmolarity the nurse should assess the client for
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated urine osmolarity. The nurse should assess the client for:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated urine osmolarity indicates that the urine is concentrated, suggesting the body is trying to conserve water. This commonly occurs in conditions like dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Assessing the client for fluid volume excess, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia would not be the priority in this situation. Therefore, the correct answer is to assess the client for fluid volume deficit. Fluid volume excess is characterized by decreased urine osmolarity, while hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are related to electrolyte imbalances and would not directly cause elevated urine osmolarity.

2. Which of the following is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms of Type II Diabetes treatment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Continuous Insulin is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms for treating Type II Diabetes. While medications, nutrition, and increased activity play crucial roles in managing Type II Diabetes, continuous insulin therapy is more common in Type I Diabetes or in specific cases of Type II Diabetes where other treatments are ineffective. Therefore, the correct answer is Continuous Insulin. Choices A, B, and C are mainstays in the treatment of Type II Diabetes, making them incorrect answers.

3. The client has jaundice, elevated liver enzymes, and an elevated serum bilirubin. What color urine does the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is dark amber. In jaundice, the elevated bilirubin levels are excreted in the urine, giving it a dark amber color. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in jaundice, the urine typically appears dark amber due to the presence of elevated bilirubin, not pink-tinged, straw-colored, or clear.

4. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

5. Following a thyroidectomy, a client is complaining of shortness of breath (SOB) and neck pressure. Which nursing action is the best response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! The client is displaying signs of respiratory distress after a thyroidectomy. By staying with the client, removing the dressing around the neck, and elevating the head of the bed, the nurse can assess the airway and breathing status more effectively. This immediate action can help alleviate any potential airway obstruction. Choice B is incorrect because calling a code and opening the trach set without initial assessment and basic interventions may delay necessary actions. Choice C is incorrect as having the client say "EEE"? is not as immediate or effective in addressing the respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect as leaving the client alone and calling the physician without providing immediate assistance can be detrimental in a situation of potential airway compromise.

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