Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving vancomycin (Vancocin). Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Monitor the client for signs of nephrotoxicity.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of ototoxicity.
• C. Ensure adequate hydration.
• D. Administer the medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client is receiving vancomycin is to monitor for signs of nephrotoxicity. Vancomycin can cause kidney damage, so monitoring kidney function and signs of nephrotoxicity are crucial to prevent harm. While monitoring for ototoxicity and ensuring adequate hydration are important nursing actions, they are not as critical as preventing nephrotoxicity when administering vancomycin.

2. The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed?

• A. Echocardiography
• B. Electrocardiography
• C. Cervical radiography
• D. Pulmonary function studies

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bleomycin, when administered intravenously, can lead to interstitial pneumonitis and potentially progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Therefore, pulmonary function studies are essential to monitor lung function and detect any early signs of pulmonary toxicity. Other tests, such as regular pulmonary assessments, should also be conducted to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

3. When providing instructions to a client taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro), which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid taking the medication with milk or antacids.
• B. Take the medication with a multivitamin.
• C. Consume extra dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) with milk or antacids. These can interfere with the medication's absorption. Consuming extra dairy products or taking it with a multivitamin is not recommended for the same reason. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food to help alleviate the symptoms.

4. A client is prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Increase your intake of purine-rich foods.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you experience a gout attack.
• D. Take the medication with or without food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps prevent kidney stones which can be a side effect of the medication. It is important for the client to avoid purine-rich foods to help manage gout symptoms. They should continue taking the medication even during a gout attack as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Allopurinol can be taken with or without food, so there is no need to take it on an empty stomach. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as increasing purine-rich foods is not recommended, stopping the medication during a gout attack is not advised, and allopurinol can be taken with or without food.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

Similar Questions