HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Dizziness
- C. Confusion
- D. Hallucinations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Older clients are particularly vulnerable to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent side effect is confusion. It is crucial for nurses to be vigilant in monitoring for confusion as it can impact the client's safety and well-being. While tremors, dizziness, and hallucinations are possible side effects, confusion is the most common in older clients taking cimetidine.
2. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?
- A. Paralytic ileus
- B. Incisional pain
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.
3. A client who received a kidney transplant is taking azathioprine (Imuran), and the nurse provides instructions about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions?
- A. I need to watch for signs of infection.
- B. I need to discontinue the medication after 14 days of use.
- C. I can take the medication with meals to minimize nausea.
- D. I need to call the health care provider (HCP) if more than one dose is missed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant taken for life. Discontinuing the medication after 14 days is incorrect.
4. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?
- A. Monitoring weight loss
- B. Monitoring temperature
- C. Monitoring blood pressure
- D. Monitoring potassium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.
5. A client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
- A. I should brush and floss my teeth regularly.
- B. I should take the medication with antacids.
- C. I can stop taking the medication once my seizures are controlled.
- D. I should avoid drinking milk while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement is 'I should brush and floss my teeth regularly.' Phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, so maintaining good oral hygiene is essential. Taking the medication with antacids can affect its absorption, so it should not be done. It is crucial not to stop taking the medication abruptly, even if seizures are controlled. There is no specific requirement to avoid milk while taking phenytoin (Dilantin).
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