Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for albuterol (Proventil HFA) (two puffs) and beclomethasone dipropionate (Qvar) (nasal inhalation, two puffs) by metered-dose inhaler. The medications are to be administered by the nurse by giving the:

• A. Albuterol first and then the beclomethasone dipropionate
• B. Beclomethasone dipropionate first and then the albuterol
• C. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the albuterol
• D. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the beclomethasone dipropionate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Albuterol, as a bronchodilator, should be administered first to help open up the airways, followed by beclomethasone dipropionate to reduce inflammation in the airways. This sequence ensures optimal therapeutic effects of the medications.

2. A client is receiving desmopressin acetate (DDAVP), and a healthcare provider is monitoring for adverse effects. Which of the following indicates the presence of an adverse effect?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Weight loss
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drowsiness can be a sign of water intoxication or hyponatremia, which are potential adverse effects of desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). It is crucial to monitor for this symptom and promptly address it to prevent complications.

3. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

4. Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?

• A. Neuralgia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Use of nitroglycerin
• D. Use of multivitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.

5. While assisting in caring for a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management, a nurse notes the client's absent deep tendon reflexes. What determination should the nurse make based on this data?

• A. The magnesium sulfate is effective.
• B. The infusion rate needs to be increased.
• C. The client is experiencing cerebral edema.
• D. The client is experiencing magnesium toxicity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management exhibits absent deep tendon reflexes, this indicates magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can occur as a complication of magnesium sulfate therapy, leading to suppressed reflexes. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this sign promptly and report it to prevent further complications or harm to the client.

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