Nursing Elites

1. The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted?

• A. Resolved diarrhea
• B. Relief of epigastric pain
• C. Decreased platelet count
• D. Decreased white blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Misoprostol is a gastric protectant administered to clients using NSAIDs to prevent gastric mucosal injury. Relief of epigastric pain signifies the medication's therapeutic effect as it indicates a reduction in gastrointestinal symptoms associated with NSAID use.

2. The clinic nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for a client receiving antineoplastic medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse should advise the client:

• A. To take aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) as needed for a headache
• B. To avoid drinking beverages containing alcohol
• C. To consult with healthcare providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations
• D. That it is necessary to consult HCPs before receiving a flu vaccine at the local health fair

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct advice for a client receiving antineoplastic medication is to consult with healthcare providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations. Antineoplastic medications can lower the body's resistance, making it crucial to seek guidance from healthcare providers to prevent potential complications that may arise due to the medication's impact on the immune system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking aspirin for a headache, avoiding alcohol, and consulting only before a flu vaccine at a local health fair do not directly address the specific risk related to antineoplastic medications and immunizations.

3. A client has a prescription for albuterol (Proventil HFA) (two puffs) and beclomethasone dipropionate (Qvar) (nasal inhalation, two puffs) by metered-dose inhaler. The medications are to be administered by the nurse by giving the:

• A. Albuterol first and then the beclomethasone dipropionate
• B. Beclomethasone dipropionate first and then the albuterol
• C. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the albuterol
• D. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the beclomethasone dipropionate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Albuterol, as a bronchodilator, should be administered first to help open up the airways, followed by beclomethasone dipropionate to reduce inflammation in the airways. This sequence ensures optimal therapeutic effects of the medications.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?

• A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
• B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
• D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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