a client who is receiving digoxin lanoxin daily has a serum potassium level of 30 meql and is complaining of anorexia a health care provider prescribe
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI

1. A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A healthcare provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The therapeutic serum level for digoxin ranges from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. This range is considered optimal for therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels above 2 ng/mL may lead to digoxin toxicity, which can manifest as anorexia among other symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring the digoxin levels to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of the medication.

2. A client has a prescription for albuterol (Proventil HFA) (two puffs) and beclomethasone dipropionate (Qvar) (nasal inhalation, two puffs) by metered-dose inhaler. The medications are to be administered by the nurse by giving the:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Albuterol, as a bronchodilator, should be administered first to help open up the airways, followed by beclomethasone dipropionate to reduce inflammation in the airways. This sequence ensures optimal therapeutic effects of the medications.

3. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.

4. A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may be administered to postoperative clients to address respiratory depression. This medication can also reverse the effects of analgesics, potentially leading to a sudden increase in pain. Therefore, the nurse must assess the client for any unexpected rise in pain levels after naloxone administration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pupillary changes, scattered lung wheezes, and sudden episodes of diarrhea are not typically associated with naloxone administration for respiratory depression.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular dose of penicillin to a client with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client who has a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to have an epinephrine injection readily available in case of a severe allergic reaction. In such cases, the immediate focus is on being prepared to manage a potentially life-threatening situation. While checking the medication order for accuracy, administering a test dose, and asking the client about allergies are essential steps in medication administration, the first priority is ensuring the availability of epinephrine to address a severe allergic reaction promptly.

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