HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) is prescribed for a client with neurogenic bladder. Which sign would indicate a possible toxic effect related to this medication?
- A. Pallor
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Restlessness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Signs of toxicity related to oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) include central nervous system excitation, such as nervousness, restlessness, hallucinations, and irritability. Other signs of toxicity may include hypotension or hypertension, confusion, tachycardia, a flushed or red face, and signs of respiratory depression. Restlessness is a sign of central nervous system excitation, which can indicate a possible toxic effect of this medication.
2. A client is receiving dietary instructions from a nurse regarding warfarin sodium (Coumadin) therapy. The nurse advises the client to avoid which food item?
- A. Grapes
- B. Spinach
- C. Watermelon
- D. Cottage cheese
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach. Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes the effects of warfarin sodium, an anticoagulant medication. Clients taking warfarin should avoid consuming foods rich in vitamin K, like spinach, to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Grapes (choice A), watermelon (choice C), and cottage cheese (choice D) do not interfere with the effects of warfarin, so they are safe for the client to consume while on warfarin therapy.
3. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:
- A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
- B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
- C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
- D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.
4. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Heartburn
- C. Flatulence
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.
5. A client is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?
- A. The development of complaints of insomnia
- B. The development of audible expiratory wheezes
- C. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
- D. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/min after two doses of the medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The development of audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm, associated with propranolol. Beta-blockers can trigger bronchospasm, especially in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. This complication can lead to significant respiratory distress and should be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.
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