Nursing Elites

1. A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best support to the client by:

• A. Telling the client not to take the medication with food
• B. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal
• C. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
• D. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that impaired taste is an expected side effect of ACE inhibitors like fosinopril, such as Monopril, and typically resolves within 2 to 3 months. It is essential for the nurse to offer reassurance and education to the client about this common side effect to alleviate distress and encourage compliance with the medication regimen.

2. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

3. When a client taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) is prescribed ciprofloxacin (Cipro), the nurse should closely monitor the client for which potential effect of this drug interaction?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased warfarin effectiveness
• C. Increased risk of thrombosis
• D. Decreased ciprofloxacin effectiveness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is given with warfarin sodium (Coumadin), it can potentiate the effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's INR levels and watch for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, or black tarry stools.

4. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit of 32%
• B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.

5. The clinic nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for a client receiving antineoplastic medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse should advise the client:

• A. To take aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) as needed for a headache
• B. To avoid drinking beverages containing alcohol
• C. To consult with healthcare providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations
• D. That it is necessary to consult HCPs before receiving a flu vaccine at the local health fair

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct advice for a client receiving antineoplastic medication is to consult with healthcare providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations. Antineoplastic medications can lower the body's resistance, making it crucial to seek guidance from healthcare providers to prevent potential complications that may arise due to the medication's impact on the immune system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking aspirin for a headache, avoiding alcohol, and consulting only before a flu vaccine at a local health fair do not directly address the specific risk related to antineoplastic medications and immunizations.

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