Nursing Elites

1. A client has begun therapy with theophylline (Theo-24). The nurse tells the client to limit the intake of which of the following while taking this medication?

• A. Oranges and pineapple
• B. Coffee, cola, and chocolate
• C. Oysters, lobster, and shrimp
• D. Cottage cheese, cream cheese, and dairy creamers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline is a xanthine bronchodilator. Xanthines are found in coffee, cola, and chocolate. These foods should be limited while taking theophylline to prevent potential drug interactions or adverse effects.

2. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
• B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
• C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.

3. A client is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?

• A. The development of complaints of insomnia
• B. The development of audible expiratory wheezes
• C. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
• D. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/min after two doses of the medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The development of audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm, associated with propranolol. Beta-blockers can trigger bronchospasm, especially in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. This complication can lead to significant respiratory distress and should be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

4. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hearing loss
• C. Headache
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.

5. The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Glucose level
• B. Calcium level
• C. Potassium level
• D. Prothrombin time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Calcium level. Tamoxifen may increase calcium levels, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, muscle weakness, and bone pain. Monitoring serum calcium levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen does not directly affect glucose, potassium, or prothrombin time levels significantly.

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