Nursing Elites

1. A client taking ethambutol (Myambutol) understands the instructions provided by the nurse if the client states that he or she will immediately report:

• A. Impaired sense of hearing
• B. Problems with visual acuity
• C. Gastrointestinal (GI) side effects
• D. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Problems with visual acuity. Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis, leading to a decrease in visual acuity and color discrimination. Therefore, any visual changes should be reported promptly to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ethambutol does not typically cause impaired sense of hearing, gastrointestinal side effects, or orange-red discoloration of body secretions. It is crucial for clients taking ethambutol to be aware of potential visual disturbances and report them promptly to healthcare providers.

2. A client is being educated about the use of sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should take the medication with a high-protein meal.
• B. I may experience dizziness when getting up quickly.
• C. I might notice a decrease in my sex drive.
• D. I should report any thoughts of self-harm to my healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement 'I should take the medication with a high-protein meal' indicates a need for further teaching as sertraline (Zoloft) should not be taken with a high-protein meal due to potential interference with medication absorption. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements associated with the use of sertraline for depression. It is common to experience dizziness when quickly getting up, notice a decrease in sex drive, and important to report any thoughts of self-harm to the healthcare provider while on this medication.

3. A client with chronic pain is prescribed transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patches. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
• B. Avoid using heating pads over the patch.
• C. Change the patch every 72 hours.
• D. Remove the old patch before applying the new one.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients using transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patches should avoid using heating pads over the patch as heat can increase the release of the medication, potentially leading to overdose. The patch should be applied to a different site each time, changed every 72 hours, and the old patch should be removed before applying a new one to prevent accidental overdose or excessive drug absorption.

4. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

5. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

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