HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. A client taking ethambutol (Myambutol) understands the instructions provided by the nurse if the client states that he or she will immediately report:
- A. Impaired sense of hearing
- B. Problems with visual acuity
- C. Gastrointestinal (GI) side effects
- D. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Problems with visual acuity. Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis, leading to a decrease in visual acuity and color discrimination. Therefore, any visual changes should be reported promptly to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ethambutol does not typically cause impaired sense of hearing, gastrointestinal side effects, or orange-red discoloration of body secretions. It is crucial for clients taking ethambutol to be aware of potential visual disturbances and report them promptly to healthcare providers.
2. Which of the following herbal therapies would be prescribed for its use as an antispasmodic? Select all that apply.
- A. Aloe
- B. Kava
- C. Ginger
- D. Chamomile
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chamomile is known for its antispasmodic properties. It helps in relaxing muscles and reducing spasms. Aloe is a laxative, kava has anxiolytic and sedative effects, and ginger is commonly used to relieve nausea.
3. Before administering Methylergonovine (Methergine) to a client with postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony, the nurse checks which of the following as the important client parameter?
- A. Temperature
- B. Lochial flow
- C. Urine output
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Methylergonovine (Methergine) acts by stimulating uterine contractions and causing vasoconstriction. As vasoconstriction can potentially impact blood pressure, it is crucial to check the client's blood pressure before administering Methylergonovine to monitor for any hypertensive effects.
4. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?
- A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
- B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.
5. A client with portosystemic encephalopathy is receiving oral lactulose (Chronulac) daily. The nurse assesses which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?
- A. Lung sounds
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Blood ammonia level
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In portosystemic encephalopathy, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated blood ammonia levels, which can cause neurological symptoms such as encephalopathy. Lactulose is given to reduce ammonia levels by promoting its excretion through the bowel. Therefore, assessing the blood ammonia level is crucial to determine the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in managing portosystemic encephalopathy.
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