Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor for renal failure.
• B. Monitor psychosocial status.
• C. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
• D. Have heparin sodium available.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase) for an acute myocardial infarction is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication that can lead to hemorrhage as a complication. Therefore, closely monitoring the client for any signs of bleeding is essential to promptly address and manage this potential adverse effect.

2. A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A healthcare provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?

• A. 3 to 5 ng/mL
• B. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL
• C. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL
• D. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The therapeutic serum level for digoxin ranges from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. This range is considered optimal for therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels above 2 ng/mL may lead to digoxin toxicity, which can manifest as anorexia among other symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring the digoxin levels to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of the medication.

3. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take the medication at the same time each day.
• C. I will use an electric razor to shave.
• D. I will take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should avoid aspirin unless prescribed by their healthcare provider, as it can increase the risk of bleeding. The other statements are correct and do not indicate a need for further teaching. Taking aspirin along with warfarin can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding complications.

4. A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for:

• A. Pupillary changes
• B. Scattered lung wheezes
• C. Sudden increase in pain
• D. Sudden episodes of diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may be administered to postoperative clients to address respiratory depression. This medication can also reverse the effects of analgesics, potentially leading to a sudden increase in pain. Therefore, the nurse must assess the client for any unexpected rise in pain levels after naloxone administration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pupillary changes, scattered lung wheezes, and sudden episodes of diarrhea are not typically associated with naloxone administration for respiratory depression.

5. While taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), a client should be instructed to report which symptom if it develops during the course of this medication therapy?

• A. Nausea
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Headache
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) should be educated about potential blood disorders associated with the medication. Early signs of these disorders include symptoms like sore throat, fever, and pallor. If the client experiences any of these symptoms, they should promptly notify their healthcare provider. Nausea, diarrhea, and headache are common side effects of TMP-SMZ that usually do not require immediate medical attention.

Similar Questions