Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor for renal failure.
• B. Monitor psychosocial status.
• C. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
• D. Have heparin sodium available.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase) for an acute myocardial infarction is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication that can lead to hemorrhage as a complication. Therefore, closely monitoring the client for any signs of bleeding is essential to promptly address and manage this potential adverse effect.

2. Cycloserine (Seromycin) is added to the medication regimen for a client with tuberculosis. Which of the following would the nurse include in the client-teaching plan regarding this medication?

• A. To take the medication after meals
• B. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing
• C. To call the health care provider (HCP) if a skin rash occurs
• D. To restrict alcohol intake with this medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cycloserine requires weekly serum drug level determinations to monitor for neurotoxicity. The medication must be taken after meals, and the client should avoid alcohol. Additionally, the client should report any signs of skin rash or central nervous system toxicity to the healthcare provider.

3. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

4. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit of 32%
• B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.

5. A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bleeding
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is bleeding, as it is the most significant risk associated with heparin administration.

Similar Questions