Nursing Elites

1. Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) is prescribed for a client with angina pectoris. The client tells the nurse that the medication is causing a chronic headache. The nurse appropriately suggests that the client:

• A. Cut the dose in half.
• B. Discontinue the medication.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Contact the healthcare provider (HCP).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate can cause headaches, which usually disappear during continued therapy. Taking the medication with food or meals can help alleviate the headache. It is important to recommend this approach before considering dose adjustments or discontinuation of the medication. Contacting the healthcare provider would be necessary if the headache persists despite taking the medication with food.

2. A client has just taken a dose of trimethobenzamide (Tigan). The nurse plans to monitor this client for relief of:

• A. Heartburn
• B. Constipation
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Trimethobenzamide (Tigan) is an antiemetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the nurse would monitor the client for relief of nausea and vomiting after taking this medication.

3. Before administering Methylergonovine (Methergine) to a client with postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony, the nurse checks which of the following as the important client parameter?

• A. Temperature
• B. Lochial flow
• C. Urine output
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Methylergonovine (Methergine) acts by stimulating uterine contractions and causing vasoconstriction. As vasoconstriction can potentially impact blood pressure, it is crucial to check the client's blood pressure before administering Methylergonovine to monitor for any hypertensive effects.

4. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

5. A client is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) transdermal patch for angina. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Apply the patch to a hairless area of skin.
• B. Leave the patch on for 24 hours.
• C. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
• D. You can keep the patch on while taking a shower.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan is to apply the nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) transdermal patch at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication. While it is important to apply the patch to a hairless area of the skin for proper absorption, it does not necessarily have to be left on for 24 hours; typically, it is worn for 12-14 hours to allow for a nitrate-free period and reduce tolerance. Additionally, the patch can generally be kept on while taking a shower, as water exposure does not typically affect its efficacy.

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