Nursing Elites

1. Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) is prescribed for a client with angina pectoris. The client tells the nurse that the medication is causing a chronic headache. The nurse appropriately suggests that the client:

• A. Cut the dose in half.
• B. Discontinue the medication.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Contact the healthcare provider (HCP).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate can cause headaches, which usually disappear during continued therapy. Taking the medication with food or meals can help alleviate the headache. It is important to recommend this approach before considering dose adjustments or discontinuation of the medication. Contacting the healthcare provider would be necessary if the headache persists despite taking the medication with food.

2. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Fever
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.

3. A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge?

• A. Keep insulin vials refrigerated at all times.
• B. Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically.
• C. Increase the amount of insulin before unusual exercise.
• D. Monitor the urine acetone level to determine the insulin dosage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is stabilized with daily insulin injections, it is crucial to rotate the injection sites systematically. This practice helps prevent the development of lipodystrophy, which can affect insulin absorption and lead to inconsistent glucose control. Additionally, rotating sites minimizes discomfort and tissue damage, ensuring optimal insulin delivery and effectiveness.

4. A healthcare professional prepares to reinforce instructions to a client who is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim). The healthcare professional plans to include which of the following in the instructions?

• A. Instruct the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day.
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication with food.
• C. Inform the client that the effect of the medication will occur immediately.
• D. Instruct the client that, if swelling of the lips occurs, this is a normal expected response.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allopurinol is an antigout medication that works by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. To prevent kidney stones and promote the excretion of uric acid, increased fluid intake is essential. Instructing the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day helps to reduce the risk of kidney stones and assists in the elimination of uric acid, thereby enhancing the effectiveness of allopurinol therapy.

5. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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