Nursing Elites

1. Before administering Methylergonovine (Methergine) to a client with postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony, the nurse checks which of the following as the important client parameter?

• A. Temperature
• B. Lochial flow
• C. Urine output
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Methylergonovine (Methergine) acts by stimulating uterine contractions and causing vasoconstriction. As vasoconstriction can potentially impact blood pressure, it is crucial to check the client's blood pressure before administering Methylergonovine to monitor for any hypertensive effects.

2. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

3. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

4. The client with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving daunorubicin (DaunoXome). Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a toxic effect related to the medication?

• A. Fever
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Complaints of nausea and vomiting
• D. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles on auscultation of the lungs would indicate a toxic effect related to daunorubicin, known to cause cardiotoxicity. Cardiotoxicity can manifest as heart failure, abnormal ECG findings, or cardiomyopathy. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of cardiotoxicity to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications. Fever, diarrhea, and complaints of nausea and vomiting are common side effects of daunorubicin but do not specifically indicate a toxic effect like cardiotoxicity.

5. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit of 32%
• B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.

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