Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?

• A. Calcium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
• D. Large doses of vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.

2. A client is instructed to take levothyroxine (Synthroid). The medication should be taken:

• A. With food
• B. At lunchtime
• C. On an empty stomach
• D. At bedtime with a snack

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with food or at bedtime can interfere with its absorption, reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, it is essential for the client to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.

3. The client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide (Neosar). The nurse is reinforcing medication instructions and advises the client to:

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily.
• C. Decrease sodium intake while taking the medication.
• D. Increase potassium intake while taking the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily. Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a toxic effect. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help prevent this complication by promoting frequent urination, which reduces the concentration of the drug and its metabolites in the bladder. This dilution effect can help reduce the risk of bladder toxicity.

4. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

5. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?

• A. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
• B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
• C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.

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