HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI
1. Before administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, what is the most important laboratory test result for the nurse to check?
- A. Potassium level
- B. Creatinine level
- C. Cholesterol level
- D. Blood urea nitrogen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the potassium level before administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, so it is crucial to assess the potassium level to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.
2. A client has just taken a dose of trimethobenzamide (Tigan). The nurse plans to monitor this client for relief of:
- A. Heartburn
- B. Constipation
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Trimethobenzamide (Tigan) is an antiemetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the nurse would monitor the client for relief of nausea and vomiting after taking this medication.
3. The healthcare provider is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The healthcare provider should monitor for the potential of increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication were being applied to which of the following body areas?
- A. Back
- B. Axilla
- C. Soles of the feet
- D. Palms of the hands
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The axilla has thinner skin, making it more permeable to topical medications. Areas with thinner skin, like the axilla, allow for higher systemic absorption of topical corticosteroids.
4. A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for:
- A. Pupillary changes
- B. Scattered lung wheezes
- C. Sudden increase in pain
- D. Sudden episodes of diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may be administered to postoperative clients to address respiratory depression. This medication can also reverse the effects of analgesics, potentially leading to a sudden increase in pain. Therefore, the nurse must assess the client for any unexpected rise in pain levels after naloxone administration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pupillary changes, scattered lung wheezes, and sudden episodes of diarrhea are not typically associated with naloxone administration for respiratory depression.
5. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:
- A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
- B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
- C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
- D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.
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