Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving dietary instructions from a nurse regarding warfarin sodium (Coumadin) therapy. The nurse advises the client to avoid which food item?

• A. Grapes
• B. Spinach
• C. Watermelon
• D. Cottage cheese

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach. Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes the effects of warfarin sodium, an anticoagulant medication. Clients taking warfarin should avoid consuming foods rich in vitamin K, like spinach, to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Grapes (choice A), watermelon (choice C), and cottage cheese (choice D) do not interfere with the effects of warfarin, so they are safe for the client to consume while on warfarin therapy.

2. The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Glucose level
• B. Calcium level
• C. Potassium level
• D. Prothrombin time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Calcium level. Tamoxifen may increase calcium levels, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, muscle weakness, and bone pain. Monitoring serum calcium levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen does not directly affect glucose, potassium, or prothrombin time levels significantly.

3. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute.
• C. Take the medications in the morning.
• D. Weigh yourself daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute, as it could indicate digoxin toxicity. Consuming potassium-rich foods is encouraged due to the potential for furosemide (Lasix) to cause hypokalemia. The medications should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Weighing oneself daily is important to monitor for fluid retention, a crucial aspect in managing heart failure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific teaching point related to digoxin and its potential toxicity.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication before a meal.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
• C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol) is to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. Glipizide stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, which can lead to hypoglycemia. It is usually taken before a meal, not necessarily on an empty stomach. Alcohol consumption should be avoided to prevent interactions with the medication. Taking the medication before bedtime is not the typical recommendation.

Similar Questions