Nursing Elites

1. Mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) is prescribed for a client as prophylaxis for organ rejection following an allogeneic renal transplant. Which of the following instructions does the nurse reinforce regarding administration of this medication?

• A. Administer on an empty stomach.
• B. Take the medication with a calcium-type antacid.
• C. Open the capsule and mix with food for administration.
• D. Contact the health care provider (HCP) if a sore throat occurs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) is to contact the healthcare provider (HCP) if unusual bleeding or bruising, sore throat, or other adverse effects occur. It is essential not to open or crush the capsules to maintain the medication's efficacy.

2. When is the best time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone?

• A. At noon
• B. At bedtime
• C. Early morning
• D. Anytime, at the same time each day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone is early morning. Corticosteroids like prednisone should be taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural hormone release pattern. This timing helps reduce the risk of disrupting the body's internal clock and minimizes the potential for insomnia or other sleep disturbances.

3. A client is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for a trichomoniasis infection. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase fluid intake to prevent kidney stones.
• D. Report any gastrointestinal upset to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Metronidazole (Flagyl) can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, resulting in severe nausea, vomiting, and headache. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid alcohol while taking this medication to prevent adverse effects. Avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent these reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. The other options are not directly related to the specific medication or the condition being treated.

4. When administering hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client, the nurse should be aware of which of the following concerns?

• A. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia
• B. Increased risk of osteoporosis
• C. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy
• D. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which can lead to hypokalemia and hyperglycemia. It is also associated with hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. Being a sulfa-based medication, individuals with a sulfa allergy are at risk for an allergic reaction when taking hydrochlorothiazide. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide can cause hyperkalemia rather than hypouricemia. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct link between hydrochlorothiazide and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because hypoglycemia and penicillin allergy are not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.

5. The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Glucose level
• B. Calcium level
• C. Potassium level
• D. Prothrombin time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Calcium level. Tamoxifen may increase calcium levels, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, muscle weakness, and bone pain. Monitoring serum calcium levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen does not directly affect glucose, potassium, or prothrombin time levels significantly.

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