the nurse should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida myelomeningocele who has a
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HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute, as it could indicate digoxin toxicity. Consuming potassium-rich foods is encouraged due to the potential for furosemide (Lasix) to cause hypokalemia. The medications should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Weighing oneself daily is important to monitor for fluid retention, a crucial aspect in managing heart failure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific teaching point related to digoxin and its potential toxicity.

3. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.

4. Before initiating a client with tuberculosis on anti-tuberculosis therapy with isoniazid (INH), a nurse ensures that which of the following baseline study has been completed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before starting INH therapy for tuberculosis, it is essential to assess liver enzyme levels as INH can cause hepatotoxicity. Monitoring liver enzyme levels before and during the initial 3 months of therapy is crucial to detect any liver damage early and prevent further complications. Choice A, electrolyte levels, are not directly impacted by INH therapy. Choice B, coagulation times, are not routinely monitored before starting INH therapy. Choice D, serum creatinine level, is not specifically required as a baseline study before initiating INH therapy for tuberculosis.

5. A healthcare professional prepares to reinforce instructions to a client who is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim). The healthcare professional plans to include which of the following in the instructions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allopurinol is an antigout medication that works by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. To prevent kidney stones and promote the excretion of uric acid, increased fluid intake is essential. Instructing the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day helps to reduce the risk of kidney stones and assists in the elimination of uric acid, thereby enhancing the effectiveness of allopurinol therapy.

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