Nursing Elites

1. A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to teach the client to:

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol.
• B. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately.
• C. Avoid Swiss or aged cheeses.
• D. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is on isoniazid (INH) therapy, they should be instructed to report any signs of hepatitis, such as yellowing of the eyes or skin, immediately. Alcohol consumption should be avoided during INH therapy due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. Foods high in tyramine, such as Swiss or aged cheeses, should also be avoided to prevent adverse reactions. Additionally, while on INH therapy, it is essential to avoid vitamin supplements containing pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to prevent potential interactions.

2. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Fever
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.

3. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

4. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:

• A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
• B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
• C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
• D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.

5. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?

• A. Calcium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
• D. Large doses of vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.

Similar Questions