Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) and is being discharged. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Consume potassium-rich foods.
• B. Take the medication in the morning.
• C. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
• D. Maintain an adequate fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness. Furosemide (Lasix) is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness. Consuming potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent hypokalemia when taking furosemide. Taking the medication in the morning helps reduce the need for frequent urination at night. Encouraging the client to maintain an adequate fluid intake is crucial to prevent dehydration while on this medication.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Weakness
• C. Headache
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Fever
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.

4. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Potassium chloride
• C. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
• D. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, working to reverse its effects in case of excessive bleeding. It should be readily available when administering heparin to manage any potential bleeding complications effectively. Potassium chloride is not the antidote for heparin and is typically used to correct low potassium levels. Phytonadione (vitamin K) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is used to treat or prevent excessive bleeding but is not the antidote for heparin.

5. Heparin sodium is prescribed for the client. The nurse expects that the healthcare provider will prescribe which of the following to monitor for a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that heparin sodium is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels assess red blood cell concentrations and are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin sodium, which affects the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, not heparin.

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