Nursing Elites

1. A client is instructed to take levothyroxine (Synthroid). The medication should be taken:

• A. With food
• B. At lunchtime
• C. On an empty stomach
• D. At bedtime with a snack

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with food or at bedtime can interfere with its absorption, reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, it is essential for the client to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.

2. A client is taking cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec). The nurse checks for which of the following side effects of this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Excitability
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Excess salivation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec) is known to commonly cause drowsiness or sedation as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of drowsiness when administering this medication. Choice A, Diarrhea, is not a common side effect of cetirizine. Choice B, Excitability, is not a typical side effect of this antihistamine; instead, it tends to cause drowsiness. Choice D, Excess salivation, is not associated with cetirizine use.

3. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

4. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?

• A. Paralytic ileus
• B. Incisional pain
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.

5. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Potassium chloride
• C. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
• D. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, working to reverse its effects in case of excessive bleeding. It should be readily available when administering heparin to manage any potential bleeding complications effectively. Potassium chloride is not the antidote for heparin and is typically used to correct low potassium levels. Phytonadione (vitamin K) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is used to treat or prevent excessive bleeding but is not the antidote for heparin.

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