Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

2. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?

• A. Paralytic ileus
• B. Incisional pain
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.

3. The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Relief of heartburn
• C. Reduction of steatorrhea
• D. Absence of abdominal pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy used to aid digestion in clients with pancreatic insufficiency. One of the key goals of pancrelipase therapy is to reduce the amount of undigested fat in the stool, known as steatorrhea. Therefore, the nurse should evaluate the effectiveness of pancrelipase by looking for a reduction in steatorrhea, indicating improved digestion and absorption of fats.

4. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

5. A client is being monitored while receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) for urinary retention. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased peristalsis
• C. Passage of flatus
• D. Urinary output of 50 mL per hour

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is administered to stimulate the bladder and treat urinary retention. The therapeutic effect is indicated by an increased urinary output, as it demonstrates the medication's ability to prompt the bladder to empty. Increased heart rate and passage of flatus are unrelated to the therapeutic effects of bethanechol. Although bethanechol can increase peristalsis, the primary therapeutic goal is to address urinary retention.

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