a client is taking phenytoin dilantin for seizure control and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn which of the following indicates a therapeutic
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI

1. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

2. A client is being monitored while receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) for urinary retention. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is administered to stimulate the bladder and treat urinary retention. The therapeutic effect is indicated by an increased urinary output, as it demonstrates the medication's ability to prompt the bladder to empty. Increased heart rate and passage of flatus are unrelated to the therapeutic effects of bethanechol. Although bethanechol can increase peristalsis, the primary therapeutic goal is to address urinary retention.

3. A healthcare provider notes that a client is receiving lamivudine (Epivir). The healthcare provider determines that this medication has been prescribed to treat which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lamivudine, known by the brand name Epivir, is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. This medication helps to inhibit the replication of HIV and improve the immune system function in individuals with HIV. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.

4. A client is learning how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which action, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When mixing regular insulin with another insulin preparation, it is crucial to withdraw the regular insulin first to prevent contamination. NPH insulin should be drawn after the regular insulin to maintain the integrity of each insulin type. Therefore, if the client withdraws the NPH insulin first, it indicates the need for further teaching. Choice B is correct as withdrawing regular insulin first is the appropriate step. Choice C is incorrect as air should be injected into the vial containing the regular insulin to maintain pressure. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial is a correct step in preparing the insulin for withdrawal.

5. After administering acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), 20% solution diluted in 0.9% normal saline by nebulizer, the nurse should have which item available for potential use?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetylcysteine is administered via inhalation as a mucolytic. It helps liquefy secretions, making it easier for the client to clear them. However, in some cases, the increased volume of liquefied secretions may be challenging for the client to manage, leading to the potential need for suction equipment to assist in clearing the airway. Therefore, the nurse should have suction equipment available after administering acetylcysteine to address any issues related to excessive secretions.

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