Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine). The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of the medication and should observe for which of the following?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Hypertension
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) stimulates muscarinic receptors, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial when administering this medication. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the effects of bethanechol chloride. Bradycardia is the correct adverse effect to monitor for, making option A the correct answer. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not commonly seen with bethanechol chloride and are therefore incorrect choices.

2. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus was previously well controlled with daily glyburide (DiaBeta). However, the fasting blood glucose level has recently been in the range of 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone
• B. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• C. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone is known to reduce the effectiveness of oral hypoglycemic medications like glyburide and insulin, which can result in hyperglycemia. Therefore, the addition of prednisone to the client's regimen could have contributed to the elevated fasting blood glucose levels observed.

4. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

5. A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Nizatidine (Axid)
• B. Ranitidine (Zantac)
• C. Famotidine (Pepcid)
• D. Ibuprofen (Motrin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: H2-receptor antagonists like Nizatidine, Ranitidine, and Famotidine are used to suppress gastric acid secretion, relieve heartburn symptoms, and prevent complications of peptic ulcer disease. Ibuprofen, on the other hand, is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for pain relief and inflammation, but it is not an H2-receptor antagonist. It is essential to differentiate between these medication classes to ensure appropriate treatment for gastrointestinal conditions.

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