Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) calls the health care provider's office complaining of side effects related to the medication. Which side effect indicates the need to stop treatment with this medication?

• A. Nausea
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Anorexia
• D. Cough and chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pulmonary reactions such as cough and chest pain are serious side effects associated with nitrofurantoin that require immediate discontinuation of the medication to prevent potential severe respiratory complications.

2. A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:

• A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
• B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
• D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.

3. When a client taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) is prescribed ciprofloxacin (Cipro), the nurse should closely monitor the client for which potential effect of this drug interaction?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased warfarin effectiveness
• C. Increased risk of thrombosis
• D. Decreased ciprofloxacin effectiveness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is given with warfarin sodium (Coumadin), it can potentiate the effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's INR levels and watch for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, or black tarry stools.

4. Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:

• A. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
• B. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
• C. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
• D. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary action of tamoxifen, an antineoplastic medication used in metastatic breast carcinoma, is to compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen receptors in tissues with high receptor concentrations. By doing so, tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response, leading to its therapeutic effect in inhibiting the growth of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells.

5. A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bleeding
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is bleeding, as it is the most significant risk associated with heparin administration.

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