Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid) for the chronic management of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The nurse advises the client to take which of the following products if needed for a headache?

• A. Naproxen (Aleve)
• B. Ibuprofen (Advil)
• C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred choice for pain relief in individuals taking lansoprazole for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome due to its lower risk of stomach irritation compared to NSAIDs like ibuprofen and aspirin. Naproxen, ibuprofen, and aspirin are NSAIDs that can increase the risk of stomach irritation and bleeding, which is why they are not recommended for individuals with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome who are already on lansoprazole to reduce stomach acid production.

2. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

3. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse reinforces to the client:

• A. To take the medication after meals
• B. To take the medication before meals
• C. To discontinue the medication if a headache occurs
• D. That a reddish-orange discoloration of the urine may occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client that a reddish-orange discoloration of urine may occur. The nurse should also educate the client that this discoloration can stain fabric. It is recommended to take the medication after meals to reduce the possibility of gastrointestinal upset. While a headache is an occasional side effect of the medication, it does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.

4. A client is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism and is to be treated with streptokinase (Streptase). A nurse would report which priority data collection finding to the registered nurse before initiating this therapy?

• A. Adventitious breath sounds
• B. Temperature of 99.4°F orally
• C. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Streptokinase therapy is contraindicated in severe uncontrolled hypertension due to the risk of cerebral hemorrhage. A blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg indicates severe hypertension, which needs to be addressed before initiating streptokinase to prevent potential complications.

5. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Dizziness
• C. Confusion
• D. Hallucinations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Older clients are particularly vulnerable to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent side effect is confusion. It is crucial for nurses to be vigilant in monitoring for confusion as it can impact the client's safety and well-being. While tremors, dizziness, and hallucinations are possible side effects, confusion is the most common in older clients taking cimetidine.

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