Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Weakness
• C. Headache
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.

2. A client with a prescription to take theophylline (Theo-24) daily has been given medication instructions by the nurse. The nurse determines that the client needs further information about the medication if the client states that he or she will:

• A. Drink at least 2 L of fluid per day.
• B. Take the daily dose at bedtime.
• C. Avoid changing brands of the medication without health care provider (HCP) approval.
• D. Avoid over-the-counter (OTC) cough and cold medications unless approved by the HCP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking theophylline at bedtime is inappropriate because it can cause insomnia. The medication should be taken early in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep patterns. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of the medication to achieve optimal therapeutic effects.

3. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute.
• C. Take the medications in the morning.
• D. Weigh yourself daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute, as it could indicate digoxin toxicity. Consuming potassium-rich foods is encouraged due to the potential for furosemide (Lasix) to cause hypokalemia. The medications should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Weighing oneself daily is important to monitor for fluid retention, a crucial aspect in managing heart failure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific teaching point related to digoxin and its potential toxicity.

5. A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor for renal failure.
• B. Monitor psychosocial status.
• C. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
• D. Have heparin sodium available.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase) for an acute myocardial infarction is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication that can lead to hemorrhage as a complication. Therefore, closely monitoring the client for any signs of bleeding is essential to promptly address and manage this potential adverse effect.

Similar Questions