Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Weakness
• C. Headache
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.

2. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for a client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Notifying the registered nurse
• B. Discontinuing the medication
• C. Informing the client that this is normal
• D. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to inform the client that local discomfort and burning are normal reactions to Mafenide acetate. This medication is used to treat burns by reducing bacteria in avascular tissues. Discontinuing the medication or applying a thinner film than prescribed is not necessary or recommended in this situation.

3. The nurse provides medication instructions to an older hypertensive client who is taking 20 mg of lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) orally daily. The nurse evaluates the need for further teaching when the client states which of the following?

• A. I can skip a dose once a week.
• B. I need to change my position slowly.
• C. I take the pill after breakfast each day.
• D. If I get a bad headache, I should call my doctor immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lisinopril should be taken daily as prescribed and not skipped. Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment.

4. A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is reinforcing teaching for the client about the medications prescribed, including clarithromycin (Biaxin), esomeprazole (Nexium), and amoxicillin (Amoxil). Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen?

• A. My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria.
• B. These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer.
• C. The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production.
• D. These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial drugs and a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and decrease acid production.

5. A client taking fexofenadine (Allegra) is scheduled for allergy skin testing and tells the nurse in the healthcare provider's office that a dose was taken this morning. The nurse determines that:

• A. The client should reschedule the appointment.
• B. A lower dose of allergen will need to be injected.
• C. A higher dose of allergen will need to be injected.
• D. The client should have the skin test read a day later than usual.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fexofenadine, an antihistamine, can cause false-negative readings in allergy skin testing and should be discontinued 3 days prior. Therefore, the client should reschedule the appointment to ensure accurate test results.

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