HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Weakness
- C. Headache
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.
2. Insulin glargine (Lantus) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse tells the client that it is best to take the insulin:
- A. 1 hour after each meal
- B. Once daily, at the same time each day
- C. 15 minutes before breakfast, lunch, and dinner
- D. Before each meal, based on the blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin with a duration of action of approximately 24 hours, making it suitable for once-daily dosing at the same time each day. This regimen helps maintain consistent blood glucose levels and simplifies the client's treatment routine. Taking insulin glargine once daily provides basal insulin coverage throughout the day, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia compared to short-acting insulins that are taken before each meal.
3. Cycloserine (Seromycin) is added to the medication regimen for a client with tuberculosis. Which of the following would the nurse include in the client-teaching plan regarding this medication?
- A. To take the medication after meals
- B. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing
- C. To call the health care provider (HCP) if a skin rash occurs
- D. To restrict alcohol intake with this medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cycloserine requires weekly serum drug level determinations to monitor for neurotoxicity. The medication must be taken after meals, and the client should avoid alcohol. Additionally, the client should report any signs of skin rash or central nervous system toxicity to the healthcare provider.
4. A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Nizatidine (Axid)
- B. Ranitidine (Zantac)
- C. Famotidine (Pepcid)
- D. Ibuprofen (Motrin)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: H2-receptor antagonists like Nizatidine, Ranitidine, and Famotidine are used to suppress gastric acid secretion, relieve heartburn symptoms, and prevent complications of peptic ulcer disease. Ibuprofen, on the other hand, is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for pain relief and inflammation, but it is not an H2-receptor antagonist. It is essential to differentiate between these medication classes to ensure appropriate treatment for gastrointestinal conditions.
5. While taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), a client should be instructed to report which symptom if it develops during the course of this medication therapy?
- A. Nausea
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Headache
- D. Sore throat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) should be educated about potential blood disorders associated with the medication. Early signs of these disorders include symptoms like sore throat, fever, and pallor. If the client experiences any of these symptoms, they should promptly notify their healthcare provider. Nausea, diarrhea, and headache are common side effects of TMP-SMZ that usually do not require immediate medical attention.
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