Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Weakness
• C. Headache
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.

2. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit of 32%
• B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.

3. A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:

• A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
• B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
• D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.

4. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. Prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin daily. Which of the following prescription changes does the nurse anticipate during therapy with prednisone?

• A. An additional dose of prednisone daily
• B. A decreased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin
• C. An increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin
• D. The addition of an oral hypoglycemic medication daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily, the nurse should anticipate an increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin. Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, can elevate blood glucose levels, requiring an increase in insulin dosage to maintain optimal blood sugar control.

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