Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Weakness
• C. Headache
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.

2. A client is taking ticlopidine hydrochloride (Ticlid). The nurse tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?

• A. Vitamin C
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ticlopidine hydrochloride is a platelet aggregation inhibitor. Aspirin or any aspirin-containing product should be avoided as they can precipitate or aggravate bleeding by affecting platelet function and increasing the risk of bleeding complications.

3. A client is receiving vancomycin (Vancocin). Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Monitor the client for signs of nephrotoxicity.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of ototoxicity.
• C. Ensure adequate hydration.
• D. Administer the medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client is receiving vancomycin is to monitor for signs of nephrotoxicity. Vancomycin can cause kidney damage, so monitoring kidney function and signs of nephrotoxicity are crucial to prevent harm. While monitoring for ototoxicity and ensuring adequate hydration are important nursing actions, they are not as critical as preventing nephrotoxicity when administering vancomycin.

4. A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best support to the client by:

• A. Telling the client not to take the medication with food
• B. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal
• C. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
• D. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that impaired taste is an expected side effect of ACE inhibitors like fosinopril, such as Monopril, and typically resolves within 2 to 3 months. It is essential for the nurse to offer reassurance and education to the client about this common side effect to alleviate distress and encourage compliance with the medication regimen.

5. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
• B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
• C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.

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