a client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate feosol the nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with thi
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.

2. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) is prescribed for a client with neurogenic bladder. Which sign would indicate a possible toxic effect related to this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of toxicity related to oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) include central nervous system excitation, such as nervousness, restlessness, hallucinations, and irritability. Other signs of toxicity may include hypotension or hypertension, confusion, tachycardia, a flushed or red face, and signs of respiratory depression. Restlessness is a sign of central nervous system excitation, which can indicate a possible toxic effect of this medication.

3. When administering etanercept (Enbrel) to a client with rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks, what is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority when administering etanercept (Enbrel) to a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to monitor white blood cell counts and platelet counts. Etanercept can lead to infections and pancytopenia, making it crucial to assess for changes in these blood parameters to detect any potential complications early on.

4. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

5. A client is learning how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which action, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When mixing regular insulin with another insulin preparation, it is crucial to withdraw the regular insulin first to prevent contamination. NPH insulin should be drawn after the regular insulin to maintain the integrity of each insulin type. Therefore, if the client withdraws the NPH insulin first, it indicates the need for further teaching. Choice B is correct as withdrawing regular insulin first is the appropriate step. Choice C is incorrect as air should be injected into the vial containing the regular insulin to maintain pressure. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial is a correct step in preparing the insulin for withdrawal.

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