HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. Before initiating a client with tuberculosis on anti-tuberculosis therapy with isoniazid (INH), a nurse ensures that which of the following baseline study has been completed?
- A. Electrolyte levels
- B. Coagulation times
- C. Liver enzyme levels
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before starting INH therapy for tuberculosis, it is essential to assess liver enzyme levels as INH can cause hepatotoxicity. Monitoring liver enzyme levels before and during the initial 3 months of therapy is crucial to detect any liver damage early and prevent further complications. Choice A, electrolyte levels, are not directly impacted by INH therapy. Choice B, coagulation times, are not routinely monitored before starting INH therapy. Choice D, serum creatinine level, is not specifically required as a baseline study before initiating INH therapy for tuberculosis.
2. While assisting in caring for a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management, a nurse notes the client's absent deep tendon reflexes. What determination should the nurse make based on this data?
- A. The magnesium sulfate is effective.
- B. The infusion rate needs to be increased.
- C. The client is experiencing cerebral edema.
- D. The client is experiencing magnesium toxicity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management exhibits absent deep tendon reflexes, this indicates magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can occur as a complication of magnesium sulfate therapy, leading to suppressed reflexes. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this sign promptly and report it to prevent further complications or harm to the client.
3. A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention?
- A. Monitor for renal failure.
- B. Monitor psychosocial status.
- C. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
- D. Have heparin sodium available.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase) for an acute myocardial infarction is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication that can lead to hemorrhage as a complication. Therefore, closely monitoring the client for any signs of bleeding is essential to promptly address and manage this potential adverse effect.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine (Catapres) transdermal patch. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
- A. I should change the patch daily.
- B. I should remove the old patch before applying a new one.
- C. I should avoid alcohol consumption while using this patch.
- D. I should apply the patch to different sites each time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client should remove the old clonidine (Catapres) patch before applying a new one to prevent overdose. The patch is typically changed every 7 days. Avoiding alcohol consumption is important as it can potentiate the sedative effects of clonidine. It is recommended to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal drug absorption.
5. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?
- A. Calcium chloride
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
- D. Large doses of vitamin D
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.
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