Nursing Elites

1. A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for:

• A. Pupillary changes
• B. Scattered lung wheezes
• C. Sudden increase in pain
• D. Sudden episodes of diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may be administered to postoperative clients to address respiratory depression. This medication can also reverse the effects of analgesics, potentially leading to a sudden increase in pain. Therefore, the nurse must assess the client for any unexpected rise in pain levels after naloxone administration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pupillary changes, scattered lung wheezes, and sudden episodes of diarrhea are not typically associated with naloxone administration for respiratory depression.

2. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg orally, to a client with heart failure. Which vital sign is most important for the healthcare professional to check before administering the medication?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Temperature
• C. Respirations
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering digoxin, it is essential to assess the client's heart rate as this medication directly affects cardiac function. Monitoring the heart rate helps identify if it is within the acceptable range for administering digoxin. A pulse rate below 60 beats per minute warrants withholding the medication to prevent potential adverse effects like bradycardia or cardiac arrhythmias.

4. A client is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. The nurse notes redness and swelling at the site, along with a slowed infusion rate. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort.
• C. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate as prescribed.
• D. Elevate the extremity of the IV site and slow the infusion rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site, and there are signs of extravasation such as redness and swelling, it is crucial to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Extravasation of antineoplastic medications can cause tissue damage, pain, and necrosis if they escape into surrounding tissues. Prompt action is necessary to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management of the situation. Administering pain medication, applying ice, or elevating the extremity are not appropriate actions in cases of suspected extravasation. These actions do not address the underlying issue of potential tissue damage and necrosis that can occur due to the leakage of antineoplastic medication.

5. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
• B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
• C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.

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