Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed losartan (Cozaar). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
• C. Monitor blood pressure weekly.
• D. Report any swelling of the lips or face.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed losartan (Cozaar) is to report any swelling of the lips or face. Losartan can cause angioedema, which is a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Clients do not need to avoid potassium-rich foods unless specifically instructed by their healthcare provider. Taking the medication with grapefruit juice is not recommended as it can interact with certain medications. Additionally, monitoring blood pressure regularly is important, but it should not be limited to a weekly basis; blood pressure should be monitored as per the healthcare provider's recommendation.

2. A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bleeding
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is bleeding, as it is the most significant risk associated with heparin administration.

3. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?

• A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
• B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
• C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
• D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.

4. The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?

• A. Intestinal obstruction
• B. Peptic ulcer with melena
• C. Diverticulitis with perforation
• D. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.

5. A client with portosystemic encephalopathy is receiving oral lactulose (Chronulac) daily. The nurse assesses which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?

• A. Lung sounds
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Blood ammonia level
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In portosystemic encephalopathy, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated blood ammonia levels, which can cause neurological symptoms such as encephalopathy. Lactulose is given to reduce ammonia levels by promoting its excretion through the bowel. Therefore, assessing the blood ammonia level is crucial to determine the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in managing portosystemic encephalopathy.

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