Nursing Elites

1. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

2. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Heartburn
• C. Flatulence
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Weakness
• C. Headache
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed losartan (Cozaar). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
• C. Monitor blood pressure weekly.
• D. Report any swelling of the lips or face.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed losartan (Cozaar) is to report any swelling of the lips or face. Losartan can cause angioedema, which is a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Clients do not need to avoid potassium-rich foods unless specifically instructed by their healthcare provider. Taking the medication with grapefruit juice is not recommended as it can interact with certain medications. Additionally, monitoring blood pressure regularly is important, but it should not be limited to a weekly basis; blood pressure should be monitored as per the healthcare provider's recommendation.

5. A health care provider (HCP) writes a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg daily. The nurse teaches the client about the medication and tells the client that it is important to:

• A. Count the radial and carotid pulses every morning.
• B. Check the blood pressure every morning and evening.
• C. Stop taking the medication if the pulse is higher than 100 beats per minute.
• D. Withhold the medication and call the HCP if the pulse is less than 60 beats per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taking digoxin, monitoring the pulse rate is essential due to its potential effects on heart rate. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, where the pulse rate drops significantly. Withholding the medication and promptly contacting the healthcare provider if the pulse falls below 60 beats per minute is crucial to prevent severe complications and ensure appropriate management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because counting radial and carotid pulses, checking blood pressure, or stopping the medication based on a pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute are not the primary monitoring parameters for a client taking digoxin.

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