nalidixic acid neggram is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection on review of the clients record the nurse notes that the client is ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

2. A client is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The development of audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm, associated with propranolol. Beta-blockers can trigger bronchospasm, especially in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. This complication can lead to significant respiratory distress and should be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

3. A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been prescribed for the client. The nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken without consulting the health care provider (HCP). The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and avoid caffeine-containing foods and fluids to prevent steroid-ulcer development.

4. A client is receiving instructions from a healthcare provider about intranasal desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). The healthcare provider explains that which of the following is a side effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intranasal desmopressin can cause a runny or stuffy nose as a side effect due to its mode of administration through the nasal passages.

5. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should avoid aspirin unless prescribed by their healthcare provider, as it can increase the risk of bleeding. The other statements are correct and do not indicate a need for further teaching. Taking aspirin along with warfarin can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding complications.

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