Nursing Elites

1. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular dose of penicillin to a client with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the medication order for accuracy.
• B. Have an epinephrine injection available.
• C. Administer a test dose to check for a reaction.
• D. Ask the client about any allergies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client who has a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to have an epinephrine injection readily available in case of a severe allergic reaction. In such cases, the immediate focus is on being prepared to manage a potentially life-threatening situation. While checking the medication order for accuracy, administering a test dose, and asking the client about allergies are essential steps in medication administration, the first priority is ensuring the availability of epinephrine to address a severe allergic reaction promptly.

3. A client is being taught about the use of enoxaparin (Lovenox) for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Inject the medication subcutaneously.
• B. Avoid massaging the injection site after administration.
• C. Administer the medication at the same time each day.
• D. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is administered subcutaneously at the same time each day to maintain consistent blood levels. Injecting the medication into the muscle is incorrect, as it should be given subcutaneously. Massaging the injection site should be avoided to prevent bruising. The air bubble in the prefilled syringe should not be expelled, as it ensures the full dose is administered.

4. A clinic nurse prepares to administer an MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine to a child. How is this vaccine best administered?

• A. Intramuscularly in the deltoid muscle
• B. Subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle
• C. Subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm
• D. Intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The MMR vaccine is best administered subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm. This route allows for proper absorption and efficacy of the vaccine while minimizing the risk of injury or discomfort to the child.

5. A client is prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Increase your intake of purine-rich foods.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you experience a gout attack.
• D. Take the medication with or without food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps prevent kidney stones which can be a side effect of the medication. It is important for the client to avoid purine-rich foods to help manage gout symptoms. They should continue taking the medication even during a gout attack as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Allopurinol can be taken with or without food, so there is no need to take it on an empty stomach. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as increasing purine-rich foods is not recommended, stopping the medication during a gout attack is not advised, and allopurinol can be taken with or without food.

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