nalidixic acid neggram is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection on review of the clients record the nurse notes that the client is ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

2. A client receiving nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) calls the health care provider's office complaining of side effects related to the medication. Which side effect indicates the need to stop treatment with this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pulmonary reactions such as cough and chest pain are serious side effects associated with nitrofurantoin that require immediate discontinuation of the medication to prevent potential severe respiratory complications.

3. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.

4. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Desmopressin promotes renal conservation of water by increasing the permeability of kidney collecting ducts to water, resulting in decreased urinary output. Therefore, the therapeutic response expected after administering desmopressin for diabetes insipidus is a reduction in urinary output.

5. A client with angina pectoris is experiencing chest pain that radiates down the left arm. The nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet to the client. The client's pain is unrelieved, and the nurse determines that the client needs another nitroglycerin tablet. Which of the following vital signs is most important for the nurse to check before administering the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is checking the client's blood pressure (C) before administering another nitroglycerin tablet. Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure, especially when giving another dose of nitroglycerin.

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