Nursing Elites

1. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The healthcare provider consults with the registered nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following is documented in the client's history?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Diabetes mellitus
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asparaginase is contraindicated in clients with a history of pancreatitis due to the risk of impairing pancreatic function and causing complications. Therefore, the healthcare provider should consult with the registered nurse to assess the client's history of pancreatitis before administering asparaginase.

3. The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?

• A. Intestinal obstruction
• B. Peptic ulcer with melena
• C. Diverticulitis with perforation
• D. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.

4. A child is hospitalized with a diagnosis of lead poisoning. The healthcare provider assisting in caring for the child would prepare to assist in administering which of the following medications?

• A. Activated charcoal
• B. Sodium bicarbonate
• C. Syrup of ipecac
• D. Dimercaprol (BAL in Oil)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dimercaprol (BAL in Oil) is a chelating agent indicated for lead poisoning. It works by binding to lead and facilitating its removal from the body. Activated charcoal is used for certain types of poisoning by adsorbing toxins, while sodium bicarbonate can be used to treat acidosis. Syrup of ipecac is no longer recommended for poison treatment due to potential risks.

5. A healthcare professional prepares to reinforce instructions to a client who is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim). The healthcare professional plans to include which of the following in the instructions?

• A. Instruct the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day.
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication with food.
• C. Inform the client that the effect of the medication will occur immediately.
• D. Instruct the client that, if swelling of the lips occurs, this is a normal expected response.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allopurinol is an antigout medication that works by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. To prevent kidney stones and promote the excretion of uric acid, increased fluid intake is essential. Instructing the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day helps to reduce the risk of kidney stones and assists in the elimination of uric acid, thereby enhancing the effectiveness of allopurinol therapy.

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