nalidixic acid neggram is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection on review of the clients record the nurse notes that the client is ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg orally, to a client with heart failure. Which vital sign is most important for the healthcare professional to check before administering the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering digoxin, it is essential to assess the client's heart rate as this medication directly affects cardiac function. Monitoring the heart rate helps identify if it is within the acceptable range for administering digoxin. A pulse rate below 60 beats per minute warrants withholding the medication to prevent potential adverse effects like bradycardia or cardiac arrhythmias.

3. A client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning. It should be taken at least 30 minutes before any food, beverage, or other medication. The client should also remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to prevent esophageal irritation. Taking alendronate at bedtime or with food is not recommended as it may reduce its absorption and effectiveness.

4. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.

5. A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: H2-receptor antagonists like Nizatidine, Ranitidine, and Famotidine are used to suppress gastric acid secretion, relieve heartburn symptoms, and prevent complications of peptic ulcer disease. Ibuprofen, on the other hand, is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for pain relief and inflammation, but it is not an H2-receptor antagonist. It is essential to differentiate between these medication classes to ensure appropriate treatment for gastrointestinal conditions.

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