nalidixic acid neggram is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection on review of the clients record the nurse notes that the client is ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

2. A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin (Humibid) every 4 hours, as needed. The nurse determines that the client understands the most effective use of this medication if the client states that he or she will:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guaifenesin is an expectorant used to help loosen mucus and make coughs more productive. Taking it with a full glass of water helps decrease the viscosity of secretions, making it easier to expel mucus from the respiratory tract. It is important not to crush sustained-release tablets, as this can alter the intended release of the medication and lead to potential adverse effects.

3. A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A healthcare provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The therapeutic serum level for digoxin ranges from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. This range is considered optimal for therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels above 2 ng/mL may lead to digoxin toxicity, which can manifest as anorexia among other symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring the digoxin levels to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of the medication.

4. Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering Isotretinoin, it is important to check the client's triglyceride levels. Isotretinoin is known to elevate triglyceride levels, hence monitoring them before and periodically during treatment is essential to prevent potential adverse effects.

5. A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is bleeding, as it is the most significant risk associated with heparin administration.

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