HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. A nurse is providing instructions to an adolescent who has a history of seizures and is taking an anticonvulsant medication. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the instructions?
- A. I will never be able to drive a car.
- B. My anticonvulsant medication will clear up my skin.
- C. I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.
- D. If I forget my morning medication, I can take two pills at bedtime.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.' Alcohol can lower the seizure threshold and should be avoided by individuals taking anticonvulsants. Choice A is incorrect because it is an extreme statement and not necessary for someone taking anticonvulsants. Choice B is incorrect as anticonvulsant medications are not used to clear skin conditions. Choice D is incorrect because doubling up medication doses can be harmful and should not be done without healthcare provider approval.
2. A client is taking ticlopidine hydrochloride (Ticlid). The nurse tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?
- A. Vitamin C
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ticlopidine hydrochloride is a platelet aggregation inhibitor. Aspirin or any aspirin-containing product should be avoided as they can precipitate or aggravate bleeding by affecting platelet function and increasing the risk of bleeding complications.
3. The healthcare provider is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the healthcare provider specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy?
- A. Anemia
- B. Decreased platelets
- C. Increased uric acid level
- D. Decreased leukocyte count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Following chemotherapy for leukemias and lymphomas, hyperuricemia is common due to the massive cell kill. Chemotherapy leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of nucleic acids, which are broken down into uric acid. Monitoring and managing uric acid levels are crucial to prevent complications such as renal damage and gout.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular dose of penicillin to a client with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Check the medication order for accuracy.
- B. Have an epinephrine injection available.
- C. Administer a test dose to check for a reaction.
- D. Ask the client about any allergies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When dealing with a client who has a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to have an epinephrine injection readily available in case of a severe allergic reaction. In such cases, the immediate focus is on being prepared to manage a potentially life-threatening situation. While checking the medication order for accuracy, administering a test dose, and asking the client about allergies are essential steps in medication administration, the first priority is ensuring the availability of epinephrine to address a severe allergic reaction promptly.
5. A client is prescribed calcium gluconate after thyroidectomy. The medication is most likely prescribed to:
- A. Treat thyroid storm.
- B. Prevent cardiac irritability.
- C. Treat hypocalcemic tetany.
- D. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands can be inadvertently removed or damaged, leading to a decrease in calcium levels and potentially causing hypocalcemic tetany. Calcium gluconate is given to supplement calcium levels and prevent or treat hypocalcemia-related symptoms, such as muscle spasms and tetany.
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