HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?
- A. Intestinal obstruction
- B. Peptic ulcer with melena
- C. Diverticulitis with perforation
- D. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.
2. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Constipation
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
3. A client who had a kidney transplant is receiving therapy with cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
- A. I need to obtain a yearly influenza vaccine.
- B. I need to have dental checkups every 3 months.
- C. I need to self-monitor my blood pressure at home.
- D. I need to call the health care provider (HCP) if my urine volume decreases or my urine becomes cloudy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that can reduce the effectiveness of vaccines. Clients should avoid vaccinations without consulting their health care provider to prevent potential complications or reduced efficacy of the vaccines.
4. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. Hematocrit of 32%
- B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
- C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.
5. A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best support to the client by:
- A. Telling the client not to take the medication with food
- B. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal
- C. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
- D. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that impaired taste is an expected side effect of ACE inhibitors like fosinopril, such as Monopril, and typically resolves within 2 to 3 months. It is essential for the nurse to offer reassurance and education to the client about this common side effect to alleviate distress and encourage compliance with the medication regimen.
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