Nursing Elites

1. The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?

• A. Intestinal obstruction
• B. Peptic ulcer with melena
• C. Diverticulitis with perforation
• D. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.

2. When administering hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client, the nurse should be aware of which of the following concerns?

• A. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia
• B. Increased risk of osteoporosis
• C. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy
• D. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which can lead to hypokalemia and hyperglycemia. It is also associated with hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. Being a sulfa-based medication, individuals with a sulfa allergy are at risk for an allergic reaction when taking hydrochlorothiazide. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide can cause hyperkalemia rather than hypouricemia. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct link between hydrochlorothiazide and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because hypoglycemia and penicillin allergy are not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.

3. Megestrol acetate (Megace), an antineoplastic medication, is prescribed for a client with metastatic endometrial carcinoma. The nurse reviews the client's history and contacts the registered nurse if which diagnosis is documented in the client's history?

• A. Gout
• B. Asthma
• C. Thrombophlebitis
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Megestrol acetate can increase the risk of thromboembolic events. Clients with a history of thrombophlebitis should not receive this medication due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events. Therefore, the nurse should contact the registered nurse if thrombophlebitis is documented in the client's history to ensure appropriate medication management.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?

• A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
• B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
• D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.

5. Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?

• A. Neuralgia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Use of nitroglycerin
• D. Use of multivitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.

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