Nursing Elites

1. The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?

• A. Intestinal obstruction
• B. Peptic ulcer with melena
• C. Diverticulitis with perforation
• D. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.

2. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?

• A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
• B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
• C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
• D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular dose of penicillin to a client with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the medication order for accuracy.
• B. Have an epinephrine injection available.
• C. Administer a test dose to check for a reaction.
• D. Ask the client about any allergies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client who has a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to have an epinephrine injection readily available in case of a severe allergic reaction. In such cases, the immediate focus is on being prepared to manage a potentially life-threatening situation. While checking the medication order for accuracy, administering a test dose, and asking the client about allergies are essential steps in medication administration, the first priority is ensuring the availability of epinephrine to address a severe allergic reaction promptly.

4. A client is receiving dietary instructions from a nurse regarding warfarin sodium (Coumadin) therapy. The nurse advises the client to avoid which food item?

• A. Grapes
• B. Spinach
• C. Watermelon
• D. Cottage cheese

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach. Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes the effects of warfarin sodium, an anticoagulant medication. Clients taking warfarin should avoid consuming foods rich in vitamin K, like spinach, to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Grapes (choice A), watermelon (choice C), and cottage cheese (choice D) do not interfere with the effects of warfarin, so they are safe for the client to consume while on warfarin therapy.

5. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

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