HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Glucose level
- B. Calcium level
- C. Potassium level
- D. Prothrombin time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Calcium level. Tamoxifen may increase calcium levels, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, muscle weakness, and bone pain. Monitoring serum calcium levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen does not directly affect glucose, potassium, or prothrombin time levels significantly.
2. A client is receiving morphine sulfate for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Constipation
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine sulfate that can lead to respiratory compromise and requires immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not immediately life-threatening compared to respiratory depression. Monitoring and addressing a low respiratory rate are crucial in preventing further respiratory distress or failure.
3. When is the best time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone?
- A. At noon
- B. At bedtime
- C. Early morning
- D. Anytime, at the same time each day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone is early morning. Corticosteroids like prednisone should be taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural hormone release pattern. This timing helps reduce the risk of disrupting the body's internal clock and minimizes the potential for insomnia or other sleep disturbances.
4. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?
- A. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
- B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
- C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
- D. Prednisone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.
5. The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hair loss
- C. Chest pain
- D. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Vincristine is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, resulting in numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Diarrhea, hair loss, and chest pain are not typically associated with vincristine use.
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