Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?

• A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
• B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
• D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.

2. A client is taking cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec). The nurse checks for which of the following side effects of this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Excitability
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Excess salivation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec) is known to commonly cause drowsiness or sedation as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of drowsiness when administering this medication. Choice A, Diarrhea, is not a common side effect of cetirizine. Choice B, Excitability, is not a typical side effect of this antihistamine; instead, it tends to cause drowsiness. Choice D, Excess salivation, is not associated with cetirizine use.

3. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?

• A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
• B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
• C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.

4. A client with coronary artery disease complains of substernal chest pain. After checking the client's heart rate and blood pressure, a nurse administers nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually. After 5 minutes, the client states, 'My chest still hurts.' Select the appropriate actions that the nurse should take.

• A. Call a code blue.
• B. Contact the registered nurse.
• C. Contact the client's family.
• D. Assess the client's pain level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the registered nurse. When a client with coronary artery disease experiences chest pain and does not achieve relief after the initial administration of nitroglycerin, it is crucial to inform the registered nurse promptly. Following the usual guideline for nitroglycerin administration, the nurse may administer a second tablet after assessing the client's pain level. The nurse should continue to assess the client's pain and monitor vital signs before each dose administration. Calling a code blue is not warranted at this point, as the client's condition does not indicate an immediate life-threatening emergency. Contacting the client's family is not necessary unless requested by the client.

5. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

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