Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?

• A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
• B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
• D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.

2. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

3. A client has just taken a dose of trimethobenzamide (Tigan). The nurse plans to monitor this client for relief of:

• A. Heartburn
• B. Constipation
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Trimethobenzamide (Tigan) is an antiemetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the nurse would monitor the client for relief of nausea and vomiting after taking this medication.

4. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?

• A. Calcium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
• D. Large doses of vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.

5. A client with portosystemic encephalopathy is receiving oral lactulose (Chronulac) daily. The nurse assesses which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?

• A. Lung sounds
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Blood ammonia level
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In portosystemic encephalopathy, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated blood ammonia levels, which can cause neurological symptoms such as encephalopathy. Lactulose is given to reduce ammonia levels by promoting its excretion through the bowel. Therefore, assessing the blood ammonia level is crucial to determine the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in managing portosystemic encephalopathy.

Similar Questions