HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?
- A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
- B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
- C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
- D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.
2. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Potassium chloride
- C. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
- D. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, working to reverse its effects in case of excessive bleeding. It should be readily available when administering heparin to manage any potential bleeding complications effectively. Potassium chloride is not the antidote for heparin and is typically used to correct low potassium levels. Phytonadione (vitamin K) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is used to treat or prevent excessive bleeding but is not the antidote for heparin.
3. A client who has been taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis asks the nurse about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I should limit my alcohol intake.
- B. I should notify my doctor if I notice a yellowish skin color.
- C. I should take the medication with an empty stomach.
- D. I should notify my doctor if I experience numbness and tingling in my extremities.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Isoniazid (INH) is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach. However, if gastrointestinal upset occurs, it can be taken with food. Limiting alcohol intake, monitoring for jaundice, and notifying the doctor of peripheral neuropathy symptoms are all appropriate actions while taking INH.
4. A nurse is providing instructions to an adolescent who has a history of seizures and is taking an anticonvulsant medication. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the instructions?
- A. I will never be able to drive a car.
- B. My anticonvulsant medication will clear up my skin.
- C. I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.
- D. If I forget my morning medication, I can take two pills at bedtime.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.' Alcohol can lower the seizure threshold and should be avoided by individuals taking anticonvulsants. Choice A is incorrect because it is an extreme statement and not necessary for someone taking anticonvulsants. Choice B is incorrect as anticonvulsant medications are not used to clear skin conditions. Choice D is incorrect because doubling up medication doses can be harmful and should not be done without healthcare provider approval.
5. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
- B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
- C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access