Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?

• A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
• B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
• D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.

2. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Decreased peripheral edema
• D. Decreased blood glucose level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Desmopressin promotes renal conservation of water by increasing the permeability of kidney collecting ducts to water, resulting in decreased urinary output. Therefore, the therapeutic response expected after administering desmopressin for diabetes insipidus is a reduction in urinary output.

3. The client has a PRN prescription for loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium). The nurse understands that this medication is used for which condition?

• A. Constipation
• B. Abdominal pain
• C. An episode of diarrhea
• D. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal medication commonly used to manage episodes of diarrhea. It works by slowing down gut movement and reducing the frequency of bowel movements. Loperamide is not indicated for constipation, abdominal pain, or hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage. It is specifically useful in acute and chronic diarrhea, such as in cases of inflammatory bowel disease, to help control symptoms and decrease fluid loss.

4. A client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Take the medication with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning. It should be taken at least 30 minutes before any food, beverage, or other medication. The client should also remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to prevent esophageal irritation. Taking alendronate at bedtime or with food is not recommended as it may reduce its absorption and effectiveness.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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