Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?

• A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
• B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
• D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.

2. A client is instructed to take levothyroxine (Synthroid). The medication should be taken:

• A. With food
• B. At lunchtime
• C. On an empty stomach
• D. At bedtime with a snack

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with food or at bedtime can interfere with its absorption, reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, it is essential for the client to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.

3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid taking folic acid supplements.
• B. Report any signs of infection immediately.
• C. Take the medication with a full meal.
• D. Limit fluid intake while on this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan when taking methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. It is important for the client to promptly report any signs of infection to receive timely medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because folic acid supplements are often recommended to reduce side effects of methotrexate. Choice C is incorrect as methotrexate is usually taken on an empty stomach unless the client experiences gastrointestinal upset. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit fluid intake while on methotrexate; in fact, maintaining adequate fluid intake is important to prevent complications such as kidney damage.

4. A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A healthcare provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?

• A. 3 to 5 ng/mL
• B. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL
• C. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL
• D. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The therapeutic serum level for digoxin ranges from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. This range is considered optimal for therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels above 2 ng/mL may lead to digoxin toxicity, which can manifest as anorexia among other symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring the digoxin levels to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of the medication.

5. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

Similar Questions