a client is being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide the vital signs are as follows blood pressure
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI

1. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

2. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

3. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. The client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide (Neosar). The nurse is reinforcing medication instructions and advises the client to:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily. Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a toxic effect. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help prevent this complication by promoting frequent urination, which reduces the concentration of the drug and its metabolites in the bladder. This dilution effect can help reduce the risk of bladder toxicity.

5. A client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is 'I should brush and floss my teeth regularly.' Phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, so maintaining good oral hygiene is essential. Taking the medication with antacids can affect its absorption, so it should not be done. It is crucial not to stop taking the medication abruptly, even if seizures are controlled. There is no specific requirement to avoid milk while taking phenytoin (Dilantin).

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