Nursing Elites

1. A nurse calls a health care provider to question a prescription written for a higher-than-normal dosage of morphine sulfate. The health care provider changes the prescription to a dosage within the normal range, and the nurse documents the new telephone prescription in accordance with the agency's guidelines in the client's record. Which other statement does the nurse document in the nursing notes?

• A. The health care provider made a mistake in the written prescription for morphine sulfate.
• B. An inaccurate dosage of morphine sulfate was prescribed and the health care provider was informed.
• C. The health care provider was contacted to correct a mistake in the dosage of morphine sulfate.
• D. The health care provider was contacted to clarify the prescription for morphine sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse needs to document a factual, descriptive, and objective statement that does not include words indicating that an individual made a mistake or performed an incorrect action or procedure. If a health care provider's prescription must be questioned, the nurse should record that clarification regarding the prescription was sought. Therefore, the correct statement to document is that the health care provider was contacted to clarify the prescription for morphine sulfate. Choices A, B, and C imply errors or mistakes on the part of the health care provider, which is not the focus of the documentation in this scenario.

2. Which of the following scenarios are considered violations of HIPAA laws?

• A. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed.
• B. Looking up the medical information of a friend without permission.
• C. Checking on your spouse's medical record because you are listed as her power of attorney.
• D. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scenarios B and C are considered violations of HIPAA laws. Looking up the medical information of a friend who is not in your care, even with permission, is a violation of HIPAA as the friend is not your patient. Checking on your spouse's medical record, even as a power of attorney, is a violation unless it is directly related to caregiving decisions. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed is not a violation of HIPAA. This scenario is considered an 'incidental disclosure' and is not a breach of HIPAA privacy rules. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client is actually a good practice as it maintains client confidentiality.

3. When are standard walkers typically used?

• A. When clients have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and good hand strength.
• B. When clients have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.
• C. When clients have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.
• D. When clients have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.

4. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

• A. Increase maternal fluids.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Decrease maternal fluids.
• D. Turn the mother.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve placental perfusion and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Administering oxygen also aids in increasing oxygen supply to the fetus. Turning the mother can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, optimizing blood flow to the placenta. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids would not be performed as it can further compromise placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation, making it the exception. Decreasing maternal fluids could potentially exacerbate fetal distress by reducing oxygen delivery and nutrient supply to the fetus, which is contrary to the goal of managing fetal distress.

5. The nurse provides a postoperative client with an analgesic medication and darkens the room before the client goes to sleep for the night. The nurse's actions:

• A. help decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex.
• B. stimulate hormonal changes in the brain.
• C. help the client's circadian rhythm.
• D. alert the hypothalamus in the brain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's actions of providing an analgesic medication and darkening the room aim to decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex. Reduction of environmental stimuli, especially light and noise, from the cerebral cortex, which is an area of arousal, facilitates sleep. By decreasing input to this area, the client is more likely to fall asleep and stay asleep. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario does not involve stimulating hormonal changes, influencing the circadian rhythm, or alerting the hypothalamus.

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