Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to assess the optic nerve. The nurse performs this examination by using which technique?

• A. Assessing visual acuity
• B. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis
• C. Assessing pupil constriction
• D. Assessing ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique to assess the optic nerve is by testing visual acuity and visual fields through confrontation. Visual acuity involves assessing the clarity of vision, which directly correlates with the function of the optic nerve. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis is unrelated to optic nerve assessment. Assessing pupil constriction is more related to the assessment of cranial nerves controlling eye movements, particularly the oculomotor nerve. Assessing ocular movements is related to testing the abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves, not specifically the optic nerve.

2. When a 16-year-old girl visits the women's health clinic to obtain information about birth control because she is sexually active and wants to avoid pregnancy, what should the nurse do first when interviewing the client?

• A. Assess the client's knowledge of available birth control methods.
• B. Inform the client that birth control methods can be discussed without the client's boyfriend present.
• C. Tell the client that for her age and lifestyle, birth control pills would be one of the methods of contraception.
• D. Give the client written material about various birth control methods and ask her to read them and to call if she has any questions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client seeks information about birth control, it is essential for the nurse to first assess the client's existing knowledge on the subject. This enables the nurse to provide tailored information that complements what the client already knows, facilitating better understanding and decision-making. Providing written material is a helpful educational tool but should not be the first intervention. Offering specific advice on birth control methods based on age and lifestyle limits the client's autonomy and decision-making process. Mentioning the client's boyfriend as a requirement for discussing birth control is inappropriate and nontherapeutic, as the client should be able to seek information independently.

3. When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, which of the following steps may be appropriate when communicating with the patient?

• A. Divide the verbal communication into smaller sections and address one at a time.
• B. Communicate only with written information.
• C. Ask multiple questions in a row quickly to make sure the patient is remaining engaged.
• D. Frequently communicate without assistive devices to help the patient improve their hearing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, it is important to divide verbal communication into smaller sections and address them one at a time. This approach helps the patient follow along more easily and understand the information being conveyed. While using written information can also be beneficial, solely relying on written communication may not always be practical or feasible for effective interaction. Asking multiple questions quickly can overwhelm the patient and hinder their ability to process each question adequately. It is essential to give the patient sufficient time to comprehend and respond. Additionally, frequently communicating without assistive devices is not recommended. Using assistive devices can significantly enhance the patient's ability to hear and understand, promoting better communication and patient care.

4. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

5. After undergoing gastric resection, which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?

• A. a high-protein meal
• B. a high-fat meal
• C. a large meal regardless of nutrient content
• D. a high-carbohydrate meal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. In contrast, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. While a large meal can slow down gastric emptying, the specific nutrient content, such as high carbohydrates, plays a significant role in promoting rapid emptying. Therefore, a high-carbohydrate meal is the correct choice as it is most likely to lead to rapid gastric emptying compared to the other options.

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