Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to assess the optic nerve. The nurse performs this examination by using which technique?

• A. Assessing visual acuity
• B. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis
• C. Assessing pupil constriction
• D. Assessing ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique to assess the optic nerve is by testing visual acuity and visual fields through confrontation. Visual acuity involves assessing the clarity of vision, which directly correlates with the function of the optic nerve. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis is unrelated to optic nerve assessment. Assessing pupil constriction is more related to the assessment of cranial nerves controlling eye movements, particularly the oculomotor nerve. Assessing ocular movements is related to testing the abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves, not specifically the optic nerve.

2. A nurse in a day-care setting is planning play activities for 2- and 3-year-old children. Which toys are most appropriate for these activities?

• A. Finger paints and card games
• B. Blocks and push-pull toys
• C. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys
• D. Simple board games and puzzles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate toys for 2- and 3-year-old children in a day-care setting are blocks and push-pull toys. Toddlers enjoy objects of different textures like clay, sand, finger paints, and bubbles, as well as push-pull toys, large balls, and sand and water play. They also like activities such as blocks, painting, coloring with large crayons, large puzzles, and playing with trucks or dolls. Finger paints and card games may be more suitable for older children. Videos and cutting-and-pasting toys are generally more appropriate for preschoolers. Blocks and push-pull toys are beneficial for young children as they help in developing fine motor skills, hand-eye coordination, spatial awareness, and creativity. These toys also encourage imaginative play and problem-solving, making them ideal choices for toddlers.

3. A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?

• A. Near vision
• B. Central vision
• C. Peripheral vision
• D. Ocular movements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.

4. Which of the following values should be monitored closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition?

• A. calcium
• B. magnesium
• C. glucose
• D. cholesterol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glucose is the correct value to monitor closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition. Total parenteral nutrition solutions have high glucose concentrations, necessitating monitoring to prevent complications like hyperglycemia. Calcium, magnesium, and cholesterol are not typically closely monitored during total parenteral nutrition as they are not directly related to the solution's composition or potential associated complications.

5. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. itching
• C. urinary retention
• D. somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

Similar Questions