Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to assess the optic nerve. The nurse performs this examination by using which technique?

• A. Assessing visual acuity
• B. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis
• C. Assessing pupil constriction
• D. Assessing ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique to assess the optic nerve is by testing visual acuity and visual fields through confrontation. Visual acuity involves assessing the clarity of vision, which directly correlates with the function of the optic nerve. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis is unrelated to optic nerve assessment. Assessing pupil constriction is more related to the assessment of cranial nerves controlling eye movements, particularly the oculomotor nerve. Assessing ocular movements is related to testing the abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves, not specifically the optic nerve.

2. While assisting with data collection, the nurse asks the client to close their jaws tightly. Subsequently, the nurse tries to open the closed jaws. In this technique, the nurse is assessing the motor function of which nerve?

• A. Trochlear nerve
• B. Abducens nerve
• C. Trigeminal nerve
• D. Oculomotor nerve

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trigeminal nerve. To test the motor function of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V), the nurse assesses the muscles of mastication by asking the client to clench their teeth. By trying to separate the client's jaws, the nurse evaluates the strength of the temporal and masseter muscles innervated by the trigeminal nerve. This technique helps assess if the trigeminal nerve is functioning properly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they relate to other cranial nerves that are not involved in the specific motor function being tested in this scenario. These nerves are usually assessed through different examinations such as assessing the pupils and extraocular movements, which are not part of the jaw clenching and opening technique described in the question.

3. What is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian?

• A. vitamin C
• B. vitamin B12
• C. vitamin E
• D. magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vitamin B12 is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian. While all mentioned vitamins are essential for overall health, vitamin B12 is particularly important for vegetarians as it is mainly found in animal products. A strict vegetarian diet may lack sufficient vitamin B12 intake, leading to potential health issues like anemia and neurological problems. Vitamin C deficiency is more commonly associated with scurvy, which is preventable with a diet rich in fruits and vegetables. Vitamin E deficiency is rare and usually only seen in specific medical conditions. Magnesium deficiency is not typically a primary concern for strict vegetarians as magnesium can be obtained from a variety of plant-based sources.

4. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

• A. administer both medications simultaneously
• B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them
• C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug
• D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them. Ampicillin has a pH of 8-10, while gentamicin has a pH of 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent any potential interactions. Option A is incorrect because administering both medications simultaneously can lead to incompatibility issues. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should already be aware of the correct administration sequence and not need to consult the physician or pharmacy each time. Option D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow down the treatment of the client's infection, which is not ideal in this scenario.

5. A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider should be contacted if which occurs?

• A. Puffiness of the face
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Morning sickness
• D. Urinary frequency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is important to be aware of danger signs that warrant contacting the healthcare provider. Puffiness of the face, especially around the eyes, can indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia. Other danger signs include vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain, visual disturbances, persistent vomiting, and changes in fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency are common symptoms of pregnancy and are not typically concerning unless they become severe or persistent, and do not usually require immediate medical attention.

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