Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to assess the optic nerve. The nurse performs this examination by using which technique?

• A. Assessing visual acuity
• B. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis
• C. Assessing pupil constriction
• D. Assessing ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique to assess the optic nerve is by testing visual acuity and visual fields through confrontation. Visual acuity involves assessing the clarity of vision, which directly correlates with the function of the optic nerve. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis is unrelated to optic nerve assessment. Assessing pupil constriction is more related to the assessment of cranial nerves controlling eye movements, particularly the oculomotor nerve. Assessing ocular movements is related to testing the abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves, not specifically the optic nerve.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

3. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?

• A. it focuses on the health beliefs of a particular family.
• B. it highlights the impact of culture on health explanations.
• C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
• D. it is based on an educational approach.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the influence of popular and folk domains on health perceptions. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, representing the biomedical view, and illness, reflecting individual understanding. The model underscores that cultural factors shape the significance of popular and folk influences on health beliefs. Choice A is incorrect as the model focuses on broader cultural influences, not individual family beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the model's emphasis on various cultural aspects. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in its cultural framework rather than an educational base.

4. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?

• A. Stethoscope
• B. Doppler transducer
• C. Fetoscope
• D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.

5. Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. notify the physician of the drainage
• B. change the dressing
• C. reinforce the dressing
• D. apply an abdominal binder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of a classic cholecystectomy resection, serosanguinous drainage is an expected finding postoperatively due to the nature of the surgery. The appropriate intervention in this situation is to reinforce the dressing. Changing the dressing prematurely can increase the risk of introducing infection. Applying an abdominal binder is not recommended as it can obstruct the visualization of the dressing and the underlying wound, making it difficult to monitor for any complications or changes in drainage. Notifying the physician may be necessary if there are significant changes in the drainage characteristics or other concerning signs, but the immediate action should be to reinforce the dressing to maintain a clean and secure environment for wound healing.

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