Nursing Elites

1. A male client reports numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. What laboratory value should the nurse review?

• A. Capillary glucose.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Urine specific gravity.
• D. White blood cell count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia, a condition characterized by low calcium levels in the blood. Reviewing the client's serum calcium levels is crucial in this situation to assess for hypocalcemia. Choice A, Capillary glucose, is incorrect because symptoms described are not typically associated with glucose abnormalities. Choice C, Urine specific gravity, and Choice D, White blood cell count, are unrelated to the symptoms presented and are not indicative of the client's condition.

2. A client with anemia is prescribed iron supplements. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take iron supplements with meals to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Take iron supplements with milk to improve absorption.
• C. Expect black, tarry stools as a side effect of iron supplements.
• D. Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption. Vitamin C enhances iron uptake, making it more bioavailable for the body. It is essential to avoid taking iron supplements with milk (choice B) as calcium-rich foods can hinder iron absorption. Taking iron supplements with meals (choice A) can help reduce stomach upset, but the optimal way to enhance absorption is with vitamin C. Black, tarry stools (choice C) are not a typical side effect of iron supplements and should be reported to the healthcare provider.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

4. A male client with HIV on antiretroviral therapy complains of constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Check the client's glucose level with a glucometer.
• B. Measure the client's weight accurately.
• C. Reassure the client that weight will stabilize as viral load decreases.
• D. Increase the dose of saquinavir.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to check the client's glucose level with a glucometer. Constant hunger and thirst along with weight loss can be indicative of hyperglycemia, a possible side effect of saquinavir. Monitoring the client's glucose levels is crucial in this situation. Measuring the client's weight accurately (Choice B) is important for monitoring purposes but does not address the immediate concern of hunger, thirst, and weight loss. Reassuring the client that weight will stabilize as viral load decreases (Choice C) is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms described need immediate attention. Increasing the dose of saquinavir (Choice D) without assessing the client's glucose level can worsen the hyperglycemia.

5. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

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