a male client reports numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth what laboratory value should the nurse review
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A male client reports numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. What laboratory value should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia, a condition characterized by low calcium levels in the blood. Reviewing the client's serum calcium levels is crucial in this situation to assess for hypocalcemia. Choice A, Capillary glucose, is incorrect because symptoms described are not typically associated with glucose abnormalities. Choice C, Urine specific gravity, and Choice D, White blood cell count, are unrelated to the symptoms presented and are not indicative of the client's condition.

2. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates hypoxemia, which is below the normal range (usually 95-100%). This finding requires immediate intervention as it signifies inadequate oxygenation. Options A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Option A indicates a good oxygen saturation level, option C denotes a normal respiratory rate, and option D suggests a normal heart rate. Therefore, these options do not require immediate intervention compared to the critically low oxygen saturation level of 89% in option B.

4. A client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer. Which of the following should take priority in planning care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leukopenia. Leukopenia, or a low white blood cell count, is a critical concern in clients undergoing radiation therapy due to the increased risk of infection. While esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, leukopenia poses a higher risk as it compromises the body's ability to fight infections effectively.

5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

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