HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A male client reports numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. What laboratory value should the nurse review?
- A. Capillary glucose.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Urine specific gravity.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia, a condition characterized by low calcium levels in the blood. Reviewing the client's serum calcium levels is crucial in this situation to assess for hypocalcemia. Choice A, Capillary glucose, is incorrect because symptoms described are not typically associated with glucose abnormalities. Choice C, Urine specific gravity, and Choice D, White blood cell count, are unrelated to the symptoms presented and are not indicative of the client's condition.
2. A client with heart failure receiving furosemide develops muscle weakness. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer potassium supplements as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client’s potassium levels.
- C. Instruct the client to increase their salt intake.
- D. Discontinue the furosemide.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness in a client receiving furosemide (a diuretic) is often a sign of hypokalemia, as furosemide increases potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to identify and address any imbalances and prevent complications such as arrhythmias. Administering potassium supplements without monitoring the levels can lead to hyperkalemia, which has its own set of serious complications. Instructing the client to increase salt intake is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance. Discontinuing furosemide abruptly can worsen heart failure symptoms; therefore, monitoring potassium levels and adjusting the treatment accordingly is the most appropriate action.
3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
- B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.
4. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and that her eyes are puffy. What follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?
- B. Have you had any changes in weight or energy levels?
- C. Do you have a family history of thyroid problems?
- D. Have you had recent cold intolerance or unusual fatigue?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cold intolerance, fatigue, and other changes may indicate hypothyroidism, which could explain the hair and eyebrow loss, and puffy eyes. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the symptoms presented by the client.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?
- A. Monitor for a persistent cough.
- B. Monitor for bradycardia and dizziness.
- C. Report any signs of swelling or difficulty breathing.
- D. Monitor for headache and blurred vision.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with a common side effect of a persistent dry cough. This cough can be bothersome to the client and should be reported to their healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, dizziness, swelling, difficulty breathing, headache, and blurred vision are not typically associated with lisinopril use.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access