Nursing Elites

1. A male client reports numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. What laboratory value should the nurse review?

• A. Capillary glucose.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Urine specific gravity.
• D. White blood cell count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia, a condition characterized by low calcium levels in the blood. Reviewing the client's serum calcium levels is crucial in this situation to assess for hypocalcemia. Choice A, Capillary glucose, is incorrect because symptoms described are not typically associated with glucose abnormalities. Choice C, Urine specific gravity, and Choice D, White blood cell count, are unrelated to the symptoms presented and are not indicative of the client's condition.

2. After working with a very demanding client, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse, 'I have had it with that client. I just can't do anything that pleases him. I'm not going in there again.' The nurse should respond by saying

• A. He has a lot of problems. You need to have patience with him.
• B. I will talk with him and try to figure out what to do.
• C. He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do.
• D. Ignore him and get the rest of your work done. Someone else can take care of him for the rest of the day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the UAP's feelings while exploring the client's behavior. By stating, 'He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do,' the nurse shows empathy and readiness to address the situation collaboratively. This approach helps maintain a therapeutic environment for both the UAP and the client. Choices A and D are dismissive and do not address the underlying issue or provide support. Choice B, while showing willingness to intervene, lacks the understanding of the client's potential fear and does not address the UAP's feelings.

3. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes reports blurry vision. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?

• A. Assess the client’s most recent blood glucose levels.
• B. Check the client’s hemoglobin A1C level.
• C. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypertension.
• D. Examine the client’s feet for signs of neuropathy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Blurry vision in clients with type 1 diabetes may indicate hyperglycemia, which requires prompt assessment of recent blood glucose levels to determine the cause and appropriate intervention. Checking the client’s hemoglobin A1C level (Choice B) is useful for assessing long-term glucose control, not for immediate management of blurry vision. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important in diabetes care but is not the most crucial assessment when blurry vision is reported. Examining the client’s feet for signs of neuropathy (Choice D) is important in diabetic foot care but is not the priority when dealing with blurry vision.

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