HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A male client reports numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. What laboratory value should the nurse review?
- A. Capillary glucose.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Urine specific gravity.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia, a condition characterized by low calcium levels in the blood. Reviewing the client's serum calcium levels is crucial in this situation to assess for hypocalcemia. Choice A, Capillary glucose, is incorrect because symptoms described are not typically associated with glucose abnormalities. Choice C, Urine specific gravity, and Choice D, White blood cell count, are unrelated to the symptoms presented and are not indicative of the client's condition.
2. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
- C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
- D. Assess maternal vital signs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.
3. A client frequently admitted to the locked psychiatric unit repeatedly compliments and invites one of the nurses to go out on a date. The nurse's response should be to
- A. Ask not to be assigned to this client or to work on another unit
- B. Tell the client that such behavior is inappropriate
- C. Inform the client that hospital policy prohibits staff from dating clients
- D. Discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client. By doing so, the nurse can reinforce professionalism, establish clear boundaries, and prevent ethical conflicts. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the client or unit does not address the issue at hand and may compromise patient care. Option B, while acknowledging the behavior, does not address the underlying reasons and boundaries. Option C, stating hospital policy, is not as therapeutic or client-centered as discussing the therapeutic relationship directly.
4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a dose of vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
- B. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
- C. Increase the client’s warfarin dosage to prevent clot formation.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.
5. The client is being taught about precautions with Coumadin therapy. The client should be instructed to avoid which over-the-counter medication?
- A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- B. Cough medicines containing guaifenesin
- C. Histamine blockers
- D. Laxatives containing magnesium salts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking Coumadin, which is an anticoagulant medication. Avoiding NSAIDs helps prevent potentially dangerous interactions with Coumadin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Cough medicines with guaifenesin, histamine blockers, and laxatives containing magnesium salts do not typically have significant interactions with Coumadin therapy. Therefore, they are not the over-the-counter medications that the client needs to avoid while on Coumadin.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access