Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices and stay focused on reality.
• B. Acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying.
• C. Redirect the conversation to help distract the client from the hallucinations.
• D. Offer reassurance that the voices cannot harm the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying. This approach helps build rapport with the client, demonstrates empathy, and allows the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations. Understanding the content is crucial to determine whether the client is at risk of harm. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may invalidate their experience. Redirecting the conversation (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations. Offering reassurance (Choice D) without understanding the content may overlook potential risks.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is found unconscious with a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously.
• B. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• C. Provide oral glucose gel.
• D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously. In unconscious clients with hypoglycemia, IV dextrose rapidly raises the blood glucose level. Glucagon would be a slower option and is typically used if IV access is unavailable. Oral glucose gel is not appropriate for an unconscious client as it requires swallowing and may cause aspiration. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes delays immediate treatment and could lead to further deterioration.

3. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

• A. Have him drink several glasses of water
• B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
• C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
• D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives at the clinic reporting episodes of weakness and palpitations. Which finding should the nurse identify may indicate an emerging situation?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Fingertips feel numb
• C. Reduced deep tendon reflexes
• D. Elevated fasting blood glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Numb fingertips may suggest neuropathy, a common complication of diabetes that may indicate a worsening condition. Episodes of weakness and palpitations, combined with neuropathy symptoms, could also suggest hypoglycemia or poor glycemic control, requiring further investigation. The other choices are less likely to be directly related to the client's current symptoms. While a history of hypertension is a common comorbidity in clients with diabetes, it may not directly explain the reported weakness and palpitations. Reduced deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of certain neurological conditions rather than acute emerging situations related to the client's current symptoms. An elevated fasting blood glucose level is expected in a client with type 2 diabetes and may not be the primary indicator of an emerging situation in this context.

5. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer furosemide as prescribed.
• B. Administer albumin to increase oncotic pressure.
• C. Elevate the client's legs to reduce swelling.
• D. Administer a sodium-restricted diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer furosemide as prescribed. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, is the priority intervention in a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps promote diuresis and reduce fluid buildup in the body. Choice B, administering albumin to increase oncotic pressure, may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority intervention for immediate fluid removal. Elevating the client's legs (Choice C) and administering a sodium-restricted diet (Choice D) are important aspects of managing edema and ascites but are not the priority interventions in this situation.

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