HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices and stay focused on reality.
- B. Acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying.
- C. Redirect the conversation to help distract the client from the hallucinations.
- D. Offer reassurance that the voices cannot harm the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying. This approach helps build rapport with the client, demonstrates empathy, and allows the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations. Understanding the content is crucial to determine whether the client is at risk of harm. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may invalidate their experience. Redirecting the conversation (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations. Offering reassurance (Choice D) without understanding the content may overlook potential risks.
2. A client recently started on warfarin therapy. What laboratory value is most important to monitor for this client?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Creatinine level
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor for clients on warfarin therapy. PT helps determine how long it takes blood to clot and ensures the warfarin dose is within the therapeutic range to prevent either excessive bleeding or clotting. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but PT is more specific to warfarin therapy. Creatinine level and BUN are indicators of kidney function and are not directly related to warfarin therapy.
3. A client is admitted to isolation with active tuberculosis. What infection control measures should the nurse implement?
- A. Initiate protective environment precautions.
- B. Use droplet precautions only.
- C. Ensure a positive pressure environment in the room.
- D. Implement negative pressure and contact precautions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client with active tuberculosis, it is crucial to implement negative pressure rooms and contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice A, initiating protective environment precautions, is incorrect as this is not the recommended approach for tuberculosis. Choice B, using droplet precautions only, is insufficient as tuberculosis requires additional precautions. Choice C, ensuring a positive pressure environment in the room, is incorrect because negative pressure rooms are necessary to contain airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Therefore, the most appropriate measures include implementing negative pressure rooms and contact precautions.
4. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?
- A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
- B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
- C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
- D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.
5. A client with lung cancer is admitted to palliative care. What is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Monitor respiratory status and oxygenation.
- B. Evaluate the client's mental status and cognition.
- C. Check the client’s pain level and provide comfort.
- D. Assess the client’s nutritional status and appetite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring respiratory status and oxygenation is crucial in clients with lung cancer, as metastasis to the lungs or pleural effusion can compromise breathing. This assessment helps in early identification of respiratory distress and the need for interventions to maintain adequate oxygenation. Choice B is important but not the priority in this situation. Evaluating mental status and cognition should follow after ensuring the client's physiological needs are met. Choice C, checking pain level and providing comfort, is essential but secondary to assessing respiratory status. Choice D, assessing nutritional status and appetite, is also important but not the priority when the client's breathing is at risk.
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