HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices and stay focused on reality.
- B. Acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying.
- C. Redirect the conversation to help distract the client from the hallucinations.
- D. Offer reassurance that the voices cannot harm the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying. This approach helps build rapport with the client, demonstrates empathy, and allows the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations. Understanding the content is crucial to determine whether the client is at risk of harm. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may invalidate their experience. Redirecting the conversation (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations. Offering reassurance (Choice D) without understanding the content may overlook potential risks.
2. A client with lupus erythematosus is prescribed prednisone. What teaching should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection.
- C. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- D. Take extra calcium supplements to prevent osteoporosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with lupus erythematosus prescribed prednisone is to avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the priority teaching. Taking prednisone in the morning may help reduce insomnia, but infection prevention is more critical. While prednisone can lead to osteoporosis, advising extra calcium supplements is not the most immediate concern when starting the medication.
3. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The client is prescribed intravenous antibiotics and oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Increased white blood cell count
- B. Crackles heard on lung auscultation
- C. Productive cough with green sputum
- D. Decreased respiratory rate from 24 to 18 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate indicates that the client's breathing is becoming more stable, which suggests an improvement in their condition. Respiratory rate is a critical indicator of respiratory status and oxygenation. Increased white blood cell count (choice A) suggests ongoing infection, crackles on lung auscultation (choice B) indicate fluid in the lungs, and productive cough with green sputum (choice C) may indicate persistent infection or airway inflammation, which do not necessarily reflect improvement in pneumonia.
4. A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin as prescribed.
- C. Assess for signs of bleeding at the injection site.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of albuterol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.
5. A client with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer prescribed diuretics
- B. Place the client in a supine position
- C. Restrict fluid intake immediately
- D. Increase the client's sodium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer prescribed diuretics. Diuretics are prescribed to reduce fluid overload in clients with heart failure. By promoting urine output, diuretics help alleviate symptoms like shortness of breath and swelling. While placing the client in a supine position can help with breathing and fluid redistribution, administering diuretics takes precedence as it directly addresses fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake immediately may be necessary in some cases, but the immediate priority is to administer diuretics. Increasing the client's sodium intake would worsen fluid retention and is contraindicated in heart failure.
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