Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices and stay focused on reality.
• B. Acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying.
• C. Redirect the conversation to help distract the client from the hallucinations.
• D. Offer reassurance that the voices cannot harm the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying. This approach helps build rapport with the client, demonstrates empathy, and allows the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations. Understanding the content is crucial to determine whether the client is at risk of harm. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may invalidate their experience. Redirecting the conversation (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations. Offering reassurance (Choice D) without understanding the content may overlook potential risks.

2. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
• B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
• C. Recent history of smoking.
• D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

3. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer furosemide as prescribed.
• B. Administer albumin to increase oncotic pressure.
• C. Elevate the client's legs to reduce swelling.
• D. Administer a sodium-restricted diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer furosemide as prescribed. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, is the priority intervention in a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps promote diuresis and reduce fluid buildup in the body. Choice B, administering albumin to increase oncotic pressure, may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority intervention for immediate fluid removal. Elevating the client's legs (Choice C) and administering a sodium-restricted diet (Choice D) are important aspects of managing edema and ascites but are not the priority interventions in this situation.

4. A client is scheduled for a spiral CT scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client's history requires follow-up by the nurse?

• A. Is allergic to shellfish
• B. Has a history of smoking
• C. Takes metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus
• D. Has hypertension controlled with medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An allergy to shellfish often indicates an allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dyes for CT scans. This poses a significant risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure. The nurse must ensure appropriate precautions or alternative imaging are considered. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated for a CT scan with contrast. Smoking history, metformin use, and controlled hypertension do not typically impact the safety or feasibility of the procedure.

5. An adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best?

• A. Unit tasks for each omitted teeth brushing.
• B. Candy for each successfully completed hygiene task.
• C. Privilege restriction for refusing hygiene tasks.
• D. Preferred activities or tokens for compliance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best reinforcement strategy in this scenario is providing preferred activities or tokens for compliance. Positive reinforcement is effective in behavior modification programs for individuals with intellectual disabilities. Offering preferred activities or tokens serves as a reward for completing the desired behavior, in this case, oral hygiene tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not focus on reinforcing the desired behavior with positive incentives. Choice A does not provide a positive reinforcement for compliance but rather focuses on the omission of a task. Choice B uses candy, which may not be ideal for oral hygiene. Choice C involves punishment rather than positive reinforcement.

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