HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices and stay focused on reality.
- B. Acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying.
- C. Redirect the conversation to help distract the client from the hallucinations.
- D. Offer reassurance that the voices cannot harm the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying. This approach helps build rapport with the client, demonstrates empathy, and allows the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations. Understanding the content is crucial to determine whether the client is at risk of harm. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may invalidate their experience. Redirecting the conversation (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations. Offering reassurance (Choice D) without understanding the content may overlook potential risks.
2. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
- B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
- C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
- D. Administer a stronger medication as requested
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.
3. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
- D. Place the client in a lateral position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is admitted with complaints of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities. What laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to report?
- A. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL.
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL.
- C. Potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L.
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 25 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL suggests anemia, which commonly occurs in clients with chronic kidney disease and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this finding is crucial to address the anemic condition. Choices A, C, and D are important in the context of chronic kidney disease but do not directly relate to the symptoms of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities described in the scenario.
5. The nurse is caring for a 69-year-old client with a diagnosis of hyperglycemia. Which tasks could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Test blood sugar every 2 hours using Accu-Chek
- B. Review signs of hyperglycemia with the family and client
- C. Administer insulin if the blood sugar is elevated
- D. Measure the client's urine output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because measuring urine output is a task that falls within the UAP's scope of practice and does not require clinical decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because testing blood sugar using Accu-Chek involves interpreting results and possible adjustments, which require a licensed healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as discussing signs of hyperglycemia involves education and interpretation that should be done by a nurse. Choice C is incorrect since administering insulin is a high-risk task that necessitates precise dosing and monitoring, thus should not be delegated to UAP.
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