Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices and stay focused on reality.
• B. Acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying.
• C. Redirect the conversation to help distract the client from the hallucinations.
• D. Offer reassurance that the voices cannot harm the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to acknowledge the client's feelings and ask what the voices are saying. This approach helps build rapport with the client, demonstrates empathy, and allows the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations. Understanding the content is crucial to determine whether the client is at risk of harm. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may invalidate their experience. Redirecting the conversation (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations. Offering reassurance (Choice D) without understanding the content may overlook potential risks.

2. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?

• A. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.
• B. Choose fresh fruits and vegetables.
• C. Drink at least 8 glasses of water daily.
• D. Avoid processed foods and canned soups.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding processed foods and canned soups is crucial for a client with hypertension on a low-sodium diet because these foods are typically high in sodium content. Fresh fruits and vegetables are generally healthy choices but may still contain some natural sodium. While limiting sodium intake to 2 grams per day is important, specifically avoiding processed foods and canned soups is more critical in this situation. Drinking water is essential for overall health but is not the most important instruction when focusing on reducing sodium intake.

4. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius)
• C. Diffuse macular rash
• D. Muscle tenderness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit indicates that the infection is not under control despite antibiotic therapy. Fever is a common sign of ongoing infection or inadequate response to treatment. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically indicative of the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in treating infective endocarditis.

5. The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

• A. We will call the health care provider if the child develops acne.
• B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
• C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occur.
• D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is important to prevent complications.

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