HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. Which intervention should be prioritized by the nurse when assessing tissue perfusion post-above knee amputation (AKA)?
- A. Evaluate the closest proximal pulse.
- B. Observe color and amount of wound drainage.
- C. Observe for swelling around the stump.
- D. Assess the skin elasticity of the stump.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the closest proximal pulse when assessing tissue perfusion post-above knee amputation (AKA). Checking the closest proximal pulse provides the best indication of tissue perfusion in the extremities after an AKA procedure. Observing the color and amount of wound drainage (Choice B) is important for wound care but does not directly assess tissue perfusion. Observing for swelling around the stump (Choice C) may indicate inflammation or fluid accumulation but is not the most direct way to assess tissue perfusion. Assessing the skin elasticity of the stump (Choice D) is more related to skin integrity and wound healing rather than tissue perfusion.
2. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
- B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
- C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
- D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
- B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
- C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
- D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.
4. A client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and has a rash on the chest. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
- B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client.
- D. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and a rash on the chest is to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial in preventing the allergic reaction from worsening. Administering an antihistamine (choice A) may address the symptoms but does not address the primary concern of stopping the infusion. Slowing the infusion rate and monitoring the client (choice C) may not be sufficient if the reaction is severe. Administering epinephrine subcutaneously (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for this situation.
5. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
- B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
- D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.
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