Nursing Elites

1. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?

• A. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication
• B. It helps to improve absorption
• C. It prevents orthostatic hypotension
• D. It reduces gastrointestinal upset

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.

2. A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client with congestive heart failure (CHF). Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Limit sodium intake to reduce fluid retention
• B. Consume high-protein foods to strengthen the heart
• C. Increase potassium intake to manage blood pressure
• D. Increase fluid intake to promote hydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit sodium intake to reduce fluid retention. Limiting sodium intake is crucial for managing congestive heart failure (CHF) as it helps reduce fluid retention. Excess fluid retention can worsen CHF by increasing the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect because while protein is essential for overall health, it is not directly related to managing CHF. Choice C is incorrect because potassium, although important, is not the primary focus in managing CHF. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake can exacerbate fluid retention in CHF patients.

3. A client with a history of closed head injury has a radial artery catheter in place and complains of numbness and pain distal to the insertion site. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the site for further complications.
• B. Promptly remove the catheter from the radial artery.
• C. Elevate the client’s arm above the heart.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weak pulse and numbness distal to a radial artery catheter may indicate occlusion or damage to the artery, and immediate removal of the catheter is necessary to prevent complications. Therefore, promptly removing the catheter from the radial artery (Choice B) is the correct action. Monitoring the site (Choice A) would delay necessary intervention, elevating the client's arm (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue, and notifying the healthcare provider for surgery (Choice D) without removing the catheter promptly could lead to further complications.

4. In assessing a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the nurse notes that the client's respirations have changed from 16 breaths/min with a normal depth to 32 breaths/min and deep, and the client becomes lethargic. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain next?

• A. Pulse oximetry
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Arterial blood gases
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) and lethargy are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs in uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Checking the blood glucose is the priority to confirm hyperglycemia and guide immediate treatment. Pulse oximetry is not the priority in this situation as the issue is related to altered glucose levels, not oxygenation. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes may be important later in the management of DKA but are not the initial priority compared to confirming and addressing the hyperglycemia.

5. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin level
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

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