Nursing Elites

1. The nurse administers an antibiotic for a respiratory tract infection. To evaluate the medication's effectiveness, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Platelet count and red blood cell count.
• B. White blood cell count and sputum culture.
• C. Hemoglobin A1c and glucose tolerance test.
• D. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: White blood cell count and sputum culture. Monitoring white blood cell count and sputum cultures is essential to assess the effectiveness of the antibiotic in treating the respiratory tract infection. Changes in white blood cell count can indicate the body's response to infection, while sputum cultures help determine if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogens causing the infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because platelet count, red blood cell count, hemoglobin A1c, glucose tolerance test, arterial blood gases, and serum electrolytes are not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of an antibiotic in treating a respiratory tract infection.

2. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

• A. Take phenytoin with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
• B. Maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures.
• C. Monitor for excessive drowsiness and dizziness.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to reduce seizure risk.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed phenytoin is to maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, and missing doses can increase the risk of seizures. Option A is incorrect because antacids can interact with phenytoin and reduce its absorption. Option C is important but not the most critical teaching as compared to maintaining a consistent dosing schedule. Option D is incorrect because the timing of phenytoin administration should be consistent rather than specifically at bedtime.

3. A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin as prescribed.
• C. Assess for signs of bleeding at the injection site.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of albuterol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.

4. A client is admitted with ascites, malnutrition, and recent complaints of spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Capillary refill of 8 seconds
• B. Bruises on arms and legs
• C. Round and tight abdomen
• D. Pitting edema in lower legs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A round and tight abdomen suggests fluid accumulation from ascites, which could signal a more severe underlying condition requiring immediate intervention. This finding indicates increased intra-abdominal pressure, which can lead to respiratory compromise or other serious complications. Capillary refill time, bruises on arms and legs, and pitting edema in the lower legs are important assessments but do not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention as a round and tight abdomen does in this case.

5. A client in the third trimester of pregnancy reports that she feels some 'lumpy places' in her breasts and that her nipples sometimes leak a yellowish fluid. She has an appointment with her healthcare provider in two weeks. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to immediately see her provider for an evaluation
• B. Assess the fluid for signs of infection
• C. Explain that this normal secretion can be assessed at the next visit
• D. Recommend breast ultrasound to rule out abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The yellowish fluid is likely colostrum, a normal finding in late pregnancy as the breasts prepare for lactation. It is common for women in the third trimester to experience 'lumpy places' in the breasts due to increased milk duct development. In this situation, the nurse should educate the client that these findings are normal physiological changes associated with pregnancy. Since the client has an upcoming appointment with her healthcare provider in two weeks, it is appropriate to reassure her that this can be further assessed during that visit. Instructing the client to immediately see her provider (Choice A) is unnecessary as this is a common finding in late pregnancy. Assessing the fluid for signs of infection (Choice B) is not warranted as colostrum leakage is a normal occurrence. Recommending a breast ultrasound (Choice D) is premature without further assessment by the healthcare provider.

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