HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client who recently received a prescription for ramelteon to treat sleep deprivation reports experiencing several side effects since taking the drug. Which side effect should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Somnambulism
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Vivid dreams
- D. Daytime sleepiness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Somnambulism' (sleepwalking). Somnambulism is a potentially dangerous side effect that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Sleepwalking can pose risks to the individual's safety and may indicate a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Dry mouth (choice B), vivid dreams (choice C), and daytime sleepiness (choice D) are common side effects of ramelteon and are generally not considered as urgent or serious as somnambulism. While these side effects can impact the client's quality of life, they are not typically associated with immediate safety concerns.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving heparin therapy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Localized warmth
- B. Calf pain
- C. Swelling in the affected leg
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hematuria is a sign of bleeding, which is a potential complication of heparin therapy. Immediate intervention is required to manage the bleeding and adjust the heparin dosage if necessary. Localized warmth, calf pain, and swelling in the affected leg are common findings in clients with DVT and receiving heparin therapy. While these symptoms should be monitored, hematuria indicates a more serious issue requiring immediate attention.
3. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?
- A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
- B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
- C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
- D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.
4. A client with Type 2 diabetes is admitted with frequent hyperglycemic episodes and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. What actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin to manage glucose levels.
- B. Teaching foot care to prevent injuries.
- C. Coordinating carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections.
- D. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In managing a client with Type 2 diabetes experiencing frequent hyperglycemic episodes and with a high A1C level, it is crucial to coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections. This approach helps regulate blood glucose levels effectively. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin (Choice A) is not a recommended practice as these insulins have different onset and peak times. Teaching foot care (Choice B) is important in diabetes management but is not the priority in this scenario. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections (Choice D) is important to prevent lipodystrophy but is not the immediate action needed to address the client's hyperglycemia and high A1C level.
5. In assessing a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the nurse notes that the client's respirations have changed from 16 breaths/min with a normal depth to 32 breaths/min and deep, and the client becomes lethargic. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain next?
- A. Pulse oximetry
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Arterial blood gases
- D. Serum electrolytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) and lethargy are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs in uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Checking the blood glucose is the priority to confirm hyperglycemia and guide immediate treatment. Pulse oximetry is not the priority in this situation as the issue is related to altered glucose levels, not oxygenation. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes may be important later in the management of DKA but are not the initial priority compared to confirming and addressing the hyperglycemia.
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