Nursing Elites

1. A client who recently received a prescription for ramelteon to treat sleep deprivation reports experiencing several side effects since taking the drug. Which side effect should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Somnambulism
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Vivid dreams
• D. Daytime sleepiness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Somnambulism' (sleepwalking). Somnambulism is a potentially dangerous side effect that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Sleepwalking can pose risks to the individual's safety and may indicate a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Dry mouth (choice B), vivid dreams (choice C), and daytime sleepiness (choice D) are common side effects of ramelteon and are generally not considered as urgent or serious as somnambulism. While these side effects can impact the client's quality of life, they are not typically associated with immediate safety concerns.

2. A nurse is working with a new graduate nurse on the delegation of tasks to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task would the new nurse need more teaching about delegating?

• A. Taking a client's blood pressure
• B. Providing oral hygiene for a client
• C. Assessing a client's pain level
• D. Assisting a client with ambulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessing a client's pain level. This task involves clinical judgment and interpretation, which are within the scope of a licensed nurse's practice. Delegating pain assessment to unlicensed personnel could lead to errors in pain management and inappropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D involve tasks that can be safely delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel as they do not involve interpretation or nursing judgment. Taking a client's blood pressure, providing oral hygiene, and assisting with ambulation are all routine tasks that can be appropriately assigned to UAP under the supervision of a licensed nurse.

3. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

• A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
• B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
• C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
• D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

4. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Supine
• C. Prone
• D. Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.

5. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?

• A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
• B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
• C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
• D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.

Similar Questions