HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma management. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client regarding the use of this medication?
- A. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler
- B. Hold your breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication
- C. Use the inhaler during an acute asthma attack
- D. Take the medication only when symptoms occur
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma management is to rinse the mouth after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral thrush, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) is not necessary for corticosteroid inhalers. Using the inhaler during an acute asthma attack (Choice C) is not the purpose of corticosteroids, which are used for long-term asthma management. Taking the medication only when symptoms occur (Choice D) is not correct as corticosteroids are typically used regularly to control asthma symptoms.
2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice, fatigue, and a distended abdomen. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Ammonia level
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Albumin level
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a serious complication. Monitoring ammonia levels is crucial to assess for changes in mental status and initiate treatment if needed. White blood cell count (choice B) is not the most important parameter to monitor in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the complications of cirrhosis. Albumin level (choice C) and hemoglobin level (choice D) are also important in cirrhosis, but in this case, monitoring ammonia level takes precedence due to its direct association with hepatic encephalopathy.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes reports blurry vision. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?
- A. Assess the client’s most recent blood glucose levels.
- B. Check the client’s hemoglobin A1C level.
- C. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypertension.
- D. Examine the client’s feet for signs of neuropathy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Blurry vision in clients with type 1 diabetes may indicate hyperglycemia, which requires prompt assessment of recent blood glucose levels to determine the cause and appropriate intervention. Checking the client’s hemoglobin A1C level (Choice B) is useful for assessing long-term glucose control, not for immediate management of blurry vision. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important in diabetes care but is not the most crucial assessment when blurry vision is reported. Examining the client’s feet for signs of neuropathy (Choice D) is important in diabetic foot care but is not the priority when dealing with blurry vision.
4. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?
- A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
- B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
- C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
- D. No further tests are needed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.
5. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
- B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
- C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
- D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.
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