Nursing Elites

1. A health care provider asks the nurse caring for a client with a new colostomy to request the hospital's stoma nurse to visit the client and assist with colostomy care. The nurse initiates the consultation, understanding that the stoma nurse will be able to influence the client because of which type of power?

• A. Expert power
• B. Referent power
• C. Coercive power
• D. Reward power

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Power is the ability to influence others to achieve goals. Expert power results from knowledge and skills that one possesses that are needed by others. In this scenario, the stoma nurse's expertise in colostomy care gives them the ability to influence the client effectively. Reward power is based on the ability to grant rewards and favors, which is not applicable in this situation. Coercive power is based on fear and the ability to punish, which is not the case in seeking assistance for colostomy care. Referent power results from followers' desire to identify with a powerful person, which is not the primary influence in this context.

2. A client with leukemia is being considered for a bone marrow transplant. The healthcare team is discussing the risks and benefits of this treatment and other possible treatments with the goal of inflicting the least possible harm on the client. Which principle of healthcare ethics is the team practicing?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Autonomy
• D. Justice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the principle of avoiding harm. In healthcare ethics, practitioners aim not only to do good but also to ensure they do no harm. In this scenario, the healthcare team is discussing treatment options with the intention of inflicting the least harm on the client. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to keeping promises made to clients, families, and healthcare professionals. Choice C, Autonomy, pertains to respecting a person's independence and right to make decisions. Choice D, Justice, involves fairness, equity, and the fair allocation of resources, such as healthcare services.

3. A nurse discharge planner is preparing a client for discharge from an acute care setting. The nurse assesses that skilled home care services are clinically indicated. This assessment is based on all of the following indicators except:

• A. the client has been admitted to the hospital three times in the last 2 months.
• B. the client has a Foley catheter.
• C. the client's family is available to care for him 24 hours a day.
• D. the client is ordered to continue IV antibiotics 5 days post discharge.

Correct answer: V

Rationale: Family availability to provide care and assistance is not an indicator for skilled home care services. In fact, the nurse might see an opportunity for family education to meet the client's needs so that less community support is needed. This should be discussed and negotiated with the family. Frequent hospital readmissions indicate that the client has not been able to manage either due to condition instability or lack of care needs being met, which is a red flag for home care services to monitor and meet those needs appropriately. A Foley catheter requires home health care due to infection potential and care requirements. IV antibiotics also necessitate home care for maintaining line patency and assessing the site.

4. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

5. A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?

• A. The immune system of an infant is immature, and the infant is at risk for infection.
• B. The transfer of your antibodies protects your infant until the infant is 12 months old.
• C. Yes, your infant is protected from all infections.
• D. If you breastfeed, your infant is protected from infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.

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