HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Quizlet
1. Which contraceptive option suppresses sperm motility and inhibits the implantation of the blastocyst?
- A. Copper-T
- B. Diaphragm
- C. Contraceptive pills
- D. Condom
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Copper-T. Copper-T is an intrauterine device that releases copper ions, which suppress sperm motility and inhibit the implantation of the blastocyst. This method mainly works by preventing fertilization and, if fertilization occurs, by making the endometrium less receptive to implantation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The diaphragm is a barrier method that prevents sperm from reaching the cervix; contraceptive pills mainly work by suppressing ovulation and altering cervical mucus to prevent sperm from reaching the egg; condoms are barrier methods that prevent sperm from entering the vagina.
2. Oligomenorrhea is defined as a cycle longer than:
- A. 28 days
- B. 30 days
- C. 35 days
- D. 40 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Oligomenorrhea is defined as a menstrual cycle longer than 35 days. A cycle of 28 days (Choice A) is within the normal range, and not considered oligomenorrhea. Similarly, 30 days (Choice B) and 40 days (Choice D) are also within the normal range. The correct definition of oligomenorrhea specifically refers to cycles longer than 35 days, making Choice C the correct answer.
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?
- A. Irreversible
- B. Easily available
- C. User-friendly
- D. Effective with least side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Irreversible.' An ideal contraceptive should not be irreversible because it should allow individuals to have the option to discontinue its use if desired. Choices B, C, and D are characteristics of an ideal contraceptive. Contraceptives should be easily available to ensure widespread accessibility, user-friendly to promote proper and consistent use, and effective with minimal side effects to maximize safety and tolerability.
4. What is amniocentesis used to detect?
- A. Sexually transmitted diseases
- B. Presence of certain genetic disorders
- C. Causes of infertility
- D. Presence of pneumonia germs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amniocentesis is a prenatal test used to detect certain genetic disorders in a developing fetus. It involves collecting a small sample of the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus and analyzing the genetic material present in the cells. This test is not used to detect sexually transmitted diseases, causes of infertility, or the presence of pneumonia germs. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
5. What is one of the major issues affecting adolescents in terms of sexual and reproductive health?
- A. Limited access to contraceptives and family planning
- B. Equal representation in decision-making
- C. Decreased need for sexual education
- D. Equal opportunities for career growth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Limited access to contraceptives and family planning is indeed a major issue affecting adolescents in terms of sexual and reproductive health. This lack of access can lead to unintended pregnancies, sexually transmitted infections, and limited reproductive choices. Choice B, equal representation in decision-making, although important, is not directly related to sexual and reproductive health issues faced by adolescents. Choice C, decreased need for sexual education, is incorrect as proper sexual education is crucial in promoting healthy behaviors and preventing risks. Choice D, equal opportunities for career growth, is also unrelated to the specific issues surrounding sexual and reproductive health in adolescents.
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