Nursing Elites

1. What is the role of relaxin hormone?

• A. Relaxation of the symphysis pubis.
• B. Stimulation of milk production.
• C. Stimulating the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the symphysis pubis. Relaxin hormone is responsible for loosening the ligaments in the pelvic area, particularly the symphysis pubis, to prepare for childbirth. Choice B, stimulation of milk production, is incorrect as this is primarily regulated by prolactin. Choice C, stimulating the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast, is incorrect as this is mainly influenced by estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct role of relaxin hormone is the relaxation of the symphysis pubis.

2. Causes of metrorrhagia include:

• A. Cervical carcinoma
• B. Uterine polyp
• C. Cervical endometriosis
• D. Infections like Chlamydia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metrorrhagia refers to irregular menstrual bleeding that occurs between periods. Cervical carcinoma, a type of cancer that develops in the cervix, can lead to metrorrhagia. Uterine polyps, which are growths attached to the inner wall of the uterus, can also cause abnormal bleeding. While infections like Chlamydia can cause abnormal vaginal bleeding, they are not common causes of metrorrhagia. Cervical endometriosis, although a possible gynecological condition, is not a typical cause of metrorrhagia. Therefore, the correct answer is cervical carcinoma as it is a known cause of metrorrhagia, making the other options incorrect.

3. A client 12 weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cm cervical dilation. The nurse would document these findings as which of the following?

• A. Threatened abortion
• B. Inevitable abortion
• C. Complete abortion
• D. Missed abortion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse would document these findings as an inevitable abortion. Inevitable abortion is characterized by cervical dilation with or without rupture of membranes and is associated with moderate to heavy vaginal bleeding. 'Threatened abortion' (choice A) refers to vaginal bleeding with a closed cervical os and no tissue passage. 'Complete abortion' (choice C) involves the passage of all products of conception. 'Missed abortion' (choice D) is the retention of a failed intrauterine pregnancy for an extended period without symptoms.

4. Oligomenorrhea is defined as a cycle longer than:

• A. 28 days
• B. 30 days
• C. 35 days
• D. 40 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oligomenorrhea is defined as a menstrual cycle longer than 35 days. A cycle of 28 days (Choice A) is within the normal range, and not considered oligomenorrhea. Similarly, 30 days (Choice B) and 40 days (Choice D) are also within the normal range. The correct definition of oligomenorrhea specifically refers to cycles longer than 35 days, making Choice C the correct answer.

5. What is the term used to describe the gestational sac surrounded by a blood clot and retained in the tube?

• A. A carneous mole.
• B. A hydatidiform mole.
• C. A vesicular mole.
• D. A chorionic mole.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a carneous mole. A carneous mole occurs when a gestational sac is surrounded by a blood clot and retained in the tube. Choice B, a hydatidiform mole, is incorrect as it refers to an abnormal pregnancy characterized by the presence of hydropic chorionic villi. Choice C, a vesicular mole, is also incorrect as it is another term for a complete hydatidiform mole. Choice D, a chorionic mole, is not a recognized medical term and is therefore incorrect.

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