Nursing Elites

1. In Parkinson's disease, a client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is known as:

• A. Akinesia.
• B. Dyskinesia.
• C. Chorea.
• D. Dystonia.

Correct answer: C.

Rationale: In Parkinson's disease, the client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is termed dyskinesia. Dyskinesia refers to the impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscle movements. Akinesia, on the other hand, refers to the absence or lack of voluntary movement. Chorea is characterized by involuntary, rapid, irregular movements. Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal postures or twisting movements. Therefore, dyskinesia is the specific term used for the described difficulty in Parkinson's disease.

2. A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the ER with lower right abdominal discomfort. What should the admitting nurse do first?

• A. Administer Loritab to the patient for pain relief.
• B. Place the patient in a right sidelying position for pressure relief.
• C. Start a Central Line.
• D. Provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a case of lower right abdominal discomfort, the first step should be to provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication. Administering pain medication or starting a central line should not be done without medical orders. Placing the patient in a right sidelying position may help with pressure relief, but addressing pain reduction techniques without medication is the initial priority in this scenario. It is essential to assess the patient further, consult with a healthcare provider, and follow the appropriate protocols before administering any medication or invasive procedures like starting a central line.

3. A central venous pressure reading of 11cm/H(2)O of an IV of normal saline is determined by the nurse caring for the patient. The patient has a diagnosis of pericarditis. Which of the following is the most applicable?

• A. The patient has a condition of hypovolemia.
• B. Not enough fluid has been given to the patient.
• C. Pericarditis may cause pressures greater than 10cm/H(2)O with testing of CVP.
• D. The patient may have a condition of arteriosclerosis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A central venous pressure reading above 10cm/H(2)O may indicate a condition of pericarditis, as the inflammation and fluid accumulation around the heart can lead to elevated pressures. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypovolemia would typically result in lower CVP readings, not higher. Not enough fluid given would also lead to lower CVP levels. Arteriosclerosis is not directly related to CVP readings in the context of pericarditis.

4. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

• A. metastatic liver cancer
• B. gram-negative septicemia
• C. pernicious anemia
• D. iron-deficiency anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding compared to the other conditions listed. Pernicious anemia is a condition resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, necessary for B12 absorption. While pernicious anemia can lead to neurological issues, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of bleeding. Metastatic liver cancer can cause liver dysfunction leading to coagulopathy, gram-negative septicemia can result in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and iron-deficiency anemia can lead to microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, pernicious anemia is the least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding out of the options provided.

5. After a left heart catheterization (LHC), a client complains of severe foot pain on the side of the femoral stick. The nurse notes pulselessness, pallor, and a cold extremity. What should the nurse's next action be?

• A. Administer an anticoagulant.
• B. Warm the room and re-assess.
• C. Increase IV fluids.
• D. Notify the physician stat.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to notify the physician immediately (stat). The client's symptoms of foot pain, pulselessness, pallor, and cold extremity suggest a potential vascular complication, such as arterial occlusion. Prompt notification of the physician is crucial as this condition requires urgent intervention to restore blood flow and prevent tissue damage. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice A) without physician evaluation could be harmful as the underlying cause needs to be determined first. Warming the room and re-assessing (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Increasing IV fluids (Choice C) is unlikely to address the urgent vascular issue indicated by the symptoms described.

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