Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is prescribed spironolactone to manage ascites. Which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Sodium
• B. Calcium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not directly affected by spironolactone use for managing ascites in cirrhosis.

2. Following a lumbar puncture, a client complains of worsening headache when sitting up. What complication is the client likely experiencing?

• A. A migraine headache
• B. An infection from the puncture site
• C. Low blood sugar
• D. Spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is likely experiencing spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache), a common complication of a lumbar puncture. This leakage results in a reduction of cerebrospinal fluid volume around the brain and spinal cord, leading to a headache that worsens when in an upright position due to reduced buoyancy. A migraine headache (Choice A) is not typically associated with a lumbar puncture. Infection from the puncture site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and warmth, rather than worsening headache. Low blood sugar (Choice C) is not a common complication of lumbar puncture and would not typically manifest as a worsening headache when sitting up.

3. A client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and has a rash on the chest. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
• B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client.
• D. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and a rash on the chest is to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial in preventing the allergic reaction from worsening. Administering an antihistamine (choice A) may address the symptoms but does not address the primary concern of stopping the infusion. Slowing the infusion rate and monitoring the client (choice C) may not be sufficient if the reaction is severe. Administering epinephrine subcutaneously (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for this situation.

4. A client in the third trimester of pregnancy reports that she feels some 'lumpy places' in her breasts and that her nipples sometimes leak a yellowish fluid. She has an appointment with her healthcare provider in two weeks. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to immediately see her provider for an evaluation
• B. Assess the fluid for signs of infection
• C. Explain that this normal secretion can be assessed at the next visit
• D. Recommend breast ultrasound to rule out abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The yellowish fluid is likely colostrum, a normal finding in late pregnancy as the breasts prepare for lactation. It is common for women in the third trimester to experience 'lumpy places' in the breasts due to increased milk duct development. In this situation, the nurse should educate the client that these findings are normal physiological changes associated with pregnancy. Since the client has an upcoming appointment with her healthcare provider in two weeks, it is appropriate to reassure her that this can be further assessed during that visit. Instructing the client to immediately see her provider (Choice A) is unnecessary as this is a common finding in late pregnancy. Assessing the fluid for signs of infection (Choice B) is not warranted as colostrum leakage is a normal occurrence. Recommending a breast ultrasound (Choice D) is premature without further assessment by the healthcare provider.

5. A client with Type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and lightheaded. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 60 mg/dL. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Give the client a glucagon injection
• B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
• C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
• D. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. The first step in treating hypoglycemia is to quickly raise the client's blood sugar level. Fast-acting carbohydrates like glucose tablets or juice are essential for this purpose. Giving a glucagon injection is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take anything by mouth. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for immediate treatment of hypoglycemia. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes is important after administering the fast-acting carbohydrate to ensure that the blood sugar has returned to a safe level.

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